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Exam Code: C-TFIN52-66
Exam Name: SAP Certified Application Associate - Financial Accounting with SAP ERP 6.0 EHP6
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Exam Code: C_TADM53_70
Exam Name: System Administration (MS SQL DB) with SAP NetWeaver 7.0
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Exam Code: C-TSCM52-66
Exam Name: SAP Certified Application Associate - Procurement with SAP ERP 6.0 EHP6
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NO.1 Your company currently uses internal number ranges for documents. You are rolling out your
system in a new country. It is a legal requirement in this country to have external document
numbering on vendor invoices (currently document type KR). You have copied the number ranges
from the existing company code to the new company code.
Which Customizing settings do you have to make to meet this requirement and have a minimal
effect on the existing system configuration?
A. Mark a new document number range as external and assign it to the document type KR.
B. Create a new external document type and assign the number range 51 to the new document
type.
C. Create a new document type and a new external number range interval as external. Assign the
new number range to the new document type.
D. Mark existing number range interval 51 as external for the new company code.
Answer: D

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NO.2 In your leading ledger (ledger solution), balance sheets must be created for company codes
and
segments.
Which Customizing settings do you need to make? (Choose two)
A. Define a retained earnings account.
B. Define two retained earnings accounts and assign them to your P&L accounts.
C. Assign the Segment Reporting scenario to your leading ledger.
D. Activate cost of sales accounting.
Answer: A,C

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NO.3 Which of the following accounts are updated directly?
A. Accounts in the group chart of accounts
B. Accounts in the operating chart of accounts
C. Accounts in the master chart of accounts
D. Accounts in the country chart of accounts
Answer: B

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NO.4 You post a G/L document. For the Text field, the field status of the posting key is set to
Required
Entry and the field status of the G/L account is set to Hidden Entry?
What happens during posting?
A. The document is posted.
B. A warning message is shown.
C. An error message is shown.
D. The Text field is hidden.
Answer: C

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NO.5 To which of the following does an asset class apply?
A. To all company codes in a controlling area
B. To all company codes in an instance (client-independent)
C. To all company codes in a client
D. To all company codes within a client, which share the same chart of accounts
Answer: C

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NO.6 You have two house banks. Each house bank has three bank accounts.
How many separate G/L accounts do you recommend the customer creates in the chart of
accounts?
A. Six – one for each combination of house bank and bank account
B. One for all postings
C. Two – one for each house bank
D. Three – one for each bank account
Answer: A

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NO.7 For reports in Asset Accounting, which object do you have to use and, where necessary,
customize to determine the sort level and/or the summation level?
A. Depreciation area
B. Sort key
C. Sort variant
D. Valuation area
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which of the following task types are supported by the Closing Cockpit or Schedule Manager?
(Choose three)
A. Spreadsheets
B. Transactions
C. Reconciliation keys
D. Notes (as a reminder or milestone)
E. Programs with or without variant
Answer: B,D,E

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Exam Code: C_TSCM62_64
Exam Name: SAP Certified Application Associate - Order Fulfillment with SAP ERP 6.0 EHP4
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Exam Code: P_ADM_SEC_70
Exam Name: SAP Certified Technology Professional - Security with SAP NetWeaver 7.0
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NO.1 Which of the following is not a fundamental part of a Regulatory Security Policy?
A. Why is it being done?
B. What is to be done?
C. When it is to be done?
D. Who is supposed to do it?
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which of the following authentication mechanisms is not accepted by SAP NetWeaver Portal 7.0?
A. SAML Assertions
B. User ID / password
C. X.509 client certificates
D. SNC based authentication
E. Web Access Management (WAM) products
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which of the following considerations are important if a customer plans to use the Internet Connection
Manager (ICM) in SAP NetWeaver AS 7.0, together with Microsoft Internet Explorer? Note: There are 2
correct answers to this question.
A. The use of the TCP/IP ports must be agreed with the security/network department.
B. The location of the SAP NetWeaver AS 7.0 within the network topology must be agreed with the
network department.
C. The SAP Gateway Port 3300 must be taken into consideration for the ICM.
Answer: A,B

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NO.4 When you use the Central User Administration (CUA), when will your changes to user data become
effective in the child systems? Please also consider the options that the Application Link Enabling
technology (ALE) offers.
Note: There are 2 correct answers to this question.
A. Changes are replicated immediately.
B. The changes can be replicated by the background job "CUA_Distribute" in the central system.
C. The IDocs that transport the changes to the user master data in the child systems can be collected and
transferred at a later time, triggered by a background job.
D. The changes can be replicated by selecting the button "Distribute all data" in transaction SCUA.
E. The data for CUA will be replicated to the child systems every 60 minutes if no other
setting/configuration overrides this default value.
Answer: A,C

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NO.5 The SAP Web dispatcher gets information about the application servers and groups required for load
distribution from the message server and application servers. HTTP is used for this communication.
You want to change this communication to HTTPS.
Which of the following statements are true?
Note: There are 3 correct answers to this question.
A. The SAP Web Dispatcher must be set up for Secure Socket Layer (SSL).
B. The message server must be set up for Secure Socket Layer (SSL).
C. The internal group: !DIAGS must be empty.
D. The SAP Web Dispatcher must be able to accept the server certificates from the message server.
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.6 After the installation of SAP Web Dispatcher you want to create additional users to administer SAP
Web Dispatcher. Where are these users stored?
A. In the table USR02 in AS ABAP.
B. In the local database of SAP Web Dispatcher.
C. In the filesystem.
D. In the table WEBDISP_USER in AS Java.
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which of the following is a characteristic of the Segregation of Duties (SOD) principle?
Note: There are 2 correct answers to this question.
A. The SOD principle is a preventive control.
B. The SOD principle is a detective control.
C. Enforcing the SOD principle means that no single individual can carry out a critical task that could
prove to be corruptive to the company.
D. Enforcing the SOD principle means that individuals are capable of performing the tasks for different
roles, rather than depending on just one individual.
Answer: A,C

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NO.8 Which of the following statements regarding SSO and SAP Logon Tickets are true?
Note: There are 3 correct answers to this question.
A. Users have the same user ID and password in all of the systems they access using SAP Logon
Tickets.
B. The end users' Web browsers accept cookies (SAP GUI not in use).
C. The clocks for the accepting systems are synchronized with the ticket-issuing system.
D. The SSO ticket is issued after successful login to the SAP NetWeaver AS Java.
E. The cookie is stored in the temporary folder of the local GUI.
Answer: B,C,D

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Exam Code: C_TPLM30_66
Exam Name: SAP Certified Application Associate - Enterprise Asset Management (Maintenance & Repair) with SAP ERP 6.0 EHP6
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Exam Code: C-BOCR-08
Exam Name: SAP Certified Application Associate – Crystal Reports 2008
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Exam Code: C-FSUTIL-60
Exam Name: SAP Certified Associate - Utilities with SAP ERP 6.0 (C_FSUTIL_60)
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NO.1 You want to see a list of formulas containing references to a specific field. Which
method can you use?
A. Browse Field
B. Repository Explorer
C. Formula Field Search
D. Global Formula Search
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which two formulas can you use to determine whether the content of a string is a
number? (Choose
two.)
A. IsNumber({Orders.Customer ID})
B. NumberText({Orders.Customer ID})
C. IsNumeric({Orders.Customer ID})
D. NumericText({Orders.Customer ID})
Answer: C,D

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NO.3 What two configuration options are valid for long Lists of Values (LOV) in Crystal
Reports 2008?
(Choose two.)
A. UI Batch Size
B. Database Timeout
C. Maximum LOV Size
D. Maximum Rowset Records
Answer: A,C

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NO.4 After you select a BusinessObjects Universe to use as the data source for a Crystal
report, you create
a query using the BusinessObjects Query Panel. What must you do to access the underlying
data
source?
A. Create a local cache of the data source.
B. Create a connection to the data source.
C. Create a local ODBC resource for the data source.
D. Log in to BusinessObjects Enterprise.
Answer: D

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NO.5 You are creating a Crystal report to show just the Top N countries in an international
sales report based
on total sales for the previous quarter. The value of N is dynamic.
Which method must you use to achieve the required result?
A. Using the Group Select Expert, create a parameter to set the value of N. Add a conditional
formula to
view just the Top N countries.
B. After creating a parameter to set the value of N, reference that parameter within the Group
Sort Expert.
Refresh the report setting the value of N in the parameter to show just the Top N countries.
C. Using the Group Sort Expert, create a parameter to set the value of N. Refresh the report
setting the
value of N in the parameter to show just the Top N countries.
D. After creating a parameter to set the value of N, refresh the report to view just those
countries with a
grand total that is greater than N.
Answer: B

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NO.6 You want to use the Workbench feature to manage multiple reports and publish them to
BusinessObjects Enterprise as object packages. Your manager is concerned that any Crystal
user could
access and make changes to the reports located on the Workbench. How can you address
your
manager's concerns?
A. Encrypt object packages.
B. Password protect object packages.
C. Assign appropriate permissions to object packages that are published to BusinessObjects
Enterprise.
D. Track changes on object packages using the Dependency Checker.
Answer: C

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NO.7 You must create a static array in a Crystal report to be used for numeric calculations
in other formulas.
How can you do this?
A. Global NumberVar Array newArray := Array (1, 2, 3, 4, 5);
B. Global NumberVar Array newArray := MakeArray (1, 2, 3, 4, 5);
C. Global NumberVar Array newArray := CreateArray (1, 2, 3, 4, 5);
D. Global NumberVar Array newArray := DefineArray (1, 2, 3, 4, 5);
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which special field can you use to display the date a report was last changed?
A. Modification Date
B. Modification LastDate
C. Modification LastUpdate
D. Modification Time
Answer: A

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Exam Code: C-HANATEC131
Exam Name: SAP Certified Technology Associate (Edition 2013) - SAP HANA
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NO.1 What does the SAP Web AS provide?
A. Real-time data exchange with all SAP systems.
B. Master data harmonization cross SAP NetWeaver.
C. J2EE and ABAP in a single environment.
D. Storage of all transactional documents in one single database.
Answer: C

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NO.2 What does the planner profile in cost center accounting determine?
A. The available planning layouts.
B. The required planning sequence.
C. The available planning level.
D. The available planning methods (for example, top-down, forecast).
Answer: A

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NO.3 A customer wants to allocate internal and external costs, based on statistical key
figure values, to the
receivers. Which method do you choose?
A. Assessment
B. Overhead calculation
C. Distribution
D. Settlement
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which data do you need to set up an accrual calculation with the percentage method?
Note: There are
2 correct answers to this question.
A. Accrual settlement rules with percentage method.
B. Secondary cost element (category 31) as accrual cost element.
C. Primary cost element (category 3) as accrual cost element.
D. Accrual allocation cycle with sender receiver segments.
E. Cost center or internal order (order category 2) as credit object.
Answer: C,E

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NO.5 A company wants to prevent postings of more than 5000 EUR on cost centers by
generating an error
message. What do you recommend?
A. Activating and using availability control for cost centers.
B. Creating a substitution rule in the IMG.
C. Creating a lock amount on the control tab in the cost center master data.
D. Creating a validation rule in the IMG.
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which of the following is the typical sequence of steps in an ASAP roadmap?
A. Business blueprint -> Project preparation -> Final preparation -> Realization -> Go-live and
support
B. Project preparation -> Final preparation -> Business blueprint -> Realization -> Go-live and
support
C. Project preparation -> Business blueprint -> Realization -> Final preparation -> Go-live
and support
D. Project preparation -> Realization -> Business blueprint -> Final preparation -> Go-live
and support
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which master data is required for a direct activity allocation? Note: There are 3 correct
answers to this
question.
A. Activity type
B. Cost center
C. Allocation cycle
D. Activity price
E. Secondary cost element
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.8 Which of the following is a typical sequence of steps in a Purchase to Pay process?
A. Purchase requisition -> Purchase order -> Goods receipt -> Invoice verification Payment
B. Purchase requisition -> Goods issue -> Purchase verification -> Invoice receipts Payment
C. Purchase requisition -> Goods verification -> Purchase receipts -> Invoice receipts
Payment
D. Purchase order -> Purchase requisition -> Goods receipt -> Invoice verification Payment
Answer: A

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NO.1 Which tool of the ABAP Workbench do you use to create global date types and
database tables?
A. ABAP Editor
B. Data Dictionary
C. Screen Painter
Answer: B

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NO.2 How can you switch to the debugging mode?
A. Enter /h in the command field
B. Enter /debug in the command field
C. Enter /debugging in the command field
D. Choose Help? Debugging
Answer: A

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NO.3 How long are local system log entries kept available in SM21?
A. Until the next system restart
B. Until the entry is overwritten (circular file)
C. Until the name of the system log file is changed manually
D. Until the records are replicated to the central system log (usually after one hour)
Answer: B

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NO.4 You have to analyze a job that is currently processing a long running SELECT
statement on a
database table. Via transaction 'SM50 - details', you see that the read does not finish.
What can you do?
A. You have to wait until the program returns from the database. Afterwards, you can
continue analysis
(for example, with debugging or SQL-Trace).
B. You can analyze the currently processed statement using ST04 - detailed analysis.
C. You can analyze the currently processed statement by starting the SQL-Trace (ST05).
Answer: B

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NO.5 What kind of function modules may include changes to database tables? (Choose two)
A. Normal function module
B. Remote enabled function module
C. Update function module
D. No function modules at all. Database changes are usually not performed in function
module.
Answer: B,C

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NO.6 Which of the following are events of a report program? (Choose two)
A. AT LINE-SELECTION
B. INITIALIZATION
C. PARAMETERS
D. AT TITLE-PAGE-OUTPUT
Answer: A,B

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NO.7 Which of the following transactions allows you to find out whether a particular ABAP
program (for
example, RMMMPERI or Z_DELETE_ALL_FI_DATA) has been executed at a certain time in
the past.?
(Choose two)
A. SM50 (Workprocess overview)
B. SM66 (Systemwide Workprocess overview)
C. ST03 (Workload analysis)
D. ST03N (Workload analysis)
Answer: C,D

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NO.8 What can you do if a program behaves differently in batch than in a dialog? (Choose
two)
A. Search globally in the program for SY-BATCH.
B. Run the program in dialog and change SY-BATCH in the debugger to simulate batch
processing.
C. Run the program in batch and click on DEBUGGING.
D. Run the program in batch and select Environment Analysis.
Answer: A,B

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Exam Code: C-TPLM30-65
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NO.1 Which statements are correct when using the Receiver File adapter to process XML messages?
A. The messages are processed based on a poll cycle.
B. The adapter can convert the XML payload into a flat file.
C. The adapter can FTP the file to a remote directory.
D. The quality of service can be 'best effort' (BE) only.
Answer: B,C

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NO.2 Which Process Integration objects can be used in an integration process?
A. All objects displayed in the navigation area of the Integration Builder.
B. All objects within the software component version of the integration process.
C. Only the objects within the namespace of the integration process.
D. All objects displayed in the Process Integration Scenario using this process.
Answer: B

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NO.3 To react to situations where it is not possible or not advisable to continue a process in the normal way,
you can define exceptions.
Which statements correctly describe the triggering of exceptions?
A. A synchronous or asynchronous Send step can trigger an exception when a system error occurs.
B. Every step type can trigger an exception when a permanent error occurs.
C. A Control step can trigger an exception.
D. A Transformation step can trigger an exception.
E. Exceptions can only be triggered by Control steps.
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.4 Assume that your customer has a scenario in which a database table needs to be queried (i.e. to
perform a SELECT statement and obtain the result set).
What are the viable options for implementing this with the PI JDBC adapter?
A. Use the sender JDBC adapter to query the database asynchronously.
B. Use the sender JDBC adapter to query the database synchronously.
C. Use the receiver JDBC adapter to query the database synchronously.
D. Use the receiver JDBC adapter to query the database asynchronously.
Answer: A,C

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NO.5 Which of these operations can be performed by a Container Operation step?
A. Incrementing a counter variable.
B. Appending a message to a multiline container element.
C. Removing a message from a multiline container element.
D. Setting the value of an XML element of a message.
Answer: A,B

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NO.6 You have implemented a scenario where IDocs are posted to an ERP system using the receiver IDoc
adapter.
Which statements correctly describe the receiver IDoc adapter of SAP NetWeaver PI?
A. IDoc packages are not supported, unless all IDocs are collected by BPM.
B. Specific fields in the IDoc control record can be overwritten using the 'header mapping' functionality in
the Receiver Agreement.
C. Quality of service EOIO (exactly once in order) is supported, provided that the target system is a SAP
Web AS 6.40 or above.
D. If the target system is SAP Web AS 6.20 or under, then the quality of service BE (best effort) and EO
(exactly once) can be used.
E. A receiver communication channel must be defined in the Integration Builder.
Answer: B,C,E

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NO.7 The communication between the Integration Server and the backend applications can be achieved
without adapters.
Which message protocol should you use for this communication type?
A. RFC-XML
B. PI-SOAP Protocol
C. File
D. JDBC 2.0
Answer: B

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NO.8 The PI Mail adapter is used to send and receive emails. Which protocols are supported?
A. SMTP
B. HTTP
C. IMAP4
D. POP3
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.1 What are two valid settings for the ManageFaults service group attibute? (Choose two.) A . All
B. None
C.Priority
D. MonitorOnly
E. Manual
Answer: A,B,

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NO.2 What is the Veritas Cluster Server service that maintains resource configuration and state
information?
A. h~d
B. hastate
C. haconf
D.hacf
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which two tasks can be performed to improve the overall fault tolerance of a Veritas Cluster Server
cluster? (Choose two.)
A. connect e ach system in the cluster to separate power sources DB. mirror the os disk of e ach system
in the cluster
C. connect a tape drive to each system in the cluster
D. add a local disk array to each system in the cluster
E. add CPUs to each node in the cluster
Answer:A,B

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NO.4 Which three elements must be moved from the failed server to the takeover server for network users to
resume access to the database when a failover occurs? (Choose three.)
A. the vtrtuat ts address
B. the set of processes
C. the Ethernet address
D. the public key
E. the disk group
Answer:A,B,E

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NO.5 You have one of three systems in a cluster up and running Veritas Cluster Server. When the second
system starts, it finds that it has a valid Veritas Cluster Server configuration file. This configuration is
different than the one on the first system.
What happens?
A. Verltas Cluster Server uses the one from the first system.
B. Veritas Cluster Server uses the one from the second system.
C. Veritas Cluster Server will integrate the files.
D. Veritas Cluster Server will wait for the third system.
Answer:A

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NO.6 A process is manually shut down to test an automatic failover of a configured Process resource. The
service group then fails over to another system. What should be cleared before bringing the service group
back to the system on which the test was originally conducted?
A. resource
B. attribute
C. cluster
D. system
Answer:A

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NO.7 You are designing a high availability solution for an important new application and you are in the
process of identifying single points of failure in the design. What are two possible single points of failure
that can be addressed by Veritas Cluster Server? (Choose two.)
A. network
B. stor~ge
C. processors
D. memory
E. environment
Answer:A,B

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NO.8 You have two of three systems in a cluster up and running Veritas Cluster Server. When the third
system starts, it finds that it has a valid Veritas Cluster Server configuration file. This configuration is
different than the one on the first two systems.
How does Veritas Cluster Server handle this situation?
A. It will use the configur~tion from the first two systems.
B. It will use the configuration from the third system.
C. It will integrate the files to resolve the differences.
D. The third node will be unable to start.
Answer:A

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NO.1 Refer to the Exhibit.
An administrator has cloned a policy and set a schedule for the policy to run at 9:00 A.M. every day. When
the policy does not run as expected on a client computer, the administrator reviews the policy's XML and
finds that there is an end date set for a date in the past. What should the administrator do to correct this
policy?
A. export the policy, edit and correct the XML, and import the policy
B. create an automation policy that updates the end date in all solution policies
C. edit the end date field for the affected row in the vPolicy database view
D. clear the end date option in the policy's advanced options
Answer: D

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NO.2 What defines the link between user and computer resources?
A. Resource Association
B. Resource Data Class
C. Resource Type
D. Resource Link
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which Symantec Management Platform component processes data sent by the Altiris Agent and stores
it in the Configuration Management Database?
A. Symantec Management Console
B. Software Management Framework
C. Notification Server
D. Site Services
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which statement is true about the Default Shared Schedules shipping with Notification Server?
A. They cannot be deleted.
B. They cannot be modified.
C. They can override maintenance windows.
D. They cannot be disabled.
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which statement describes the relationship between Site Server and Notification Server?
A. Site Server assists Notification Server by providing packages and tasks to the Altiris Agent.
B. Site Server sends information, events, and data from the Inventory Rule Agent to Notification Server.
C. Site Server assists Notification Server by running reports.
D. Site Server takes over all functions for Notification Server.
Answer: A

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NO.6 Two administrators run the same report that displays Windows XP SP1 workstations imported from
Active Directory. The North America Symantec Administrator returns 2,500 workstations. The Marketing
Manager returns 500 workstations. When they compare the results, they find that there is an overlap of
100 workstations. Why is there an overlap in the reports?
A. Because the workstations belong to multiple organizational groups in same organizationalview.
B. Because the workstations belong to organizational groups in separate organizational views
C. Because of workstation security privilege intersection
D. Because of workstation security role filters
Answer: B

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NO.7 Refer to the Exhibit.
There is one Notification Server at HQ that manages all desktops and laptops throughout the WAN. What
should be configured to reduce processor load on the Notification Server and move network intensive
services closer to their points of distribution?
A. Organizational Units
B. Replication Management
C. Site Management
D. Security Sites
Answer: C

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NO.8 What must an administrator do to edit a sample task.?
A. clone the sample task and edit the original task
B. right-click and select the task's properties
C. clone the source folder of the sample
D. clone the sample task and edit the clone
Answer: D

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NO.1 Which policies are supported by Windows Phone 7.5?
A. Device restrictions for networking
B. SCEP profiles for certificates
C. iCal and POP/SMTP email
D. Only settings sent via EAS policies
Answer: D

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NO.2 What tool must an administrator generate to allow access to reporting data from an external
source?
A. Data API Access Key
B. One Time Password
C. OAuth Token
D. LDAP login
Answer: A

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NO.3 It is possible to enable a user to enroll their device with an e-mail address rather than an
enrollment URL in both the Symantec Mobile Management for Configuration Manager 2007 and
Symantec Mobile Management for SMP products. What step is necessary to enable a mobile
device user to enroll with their e-mail address rather than an enrollment URL?
A. attach the device to the internal network to allow email enrollment
B. add a new text record to the DNS server(s)
C. add an attribute to the Active Directory user object enabling email enrollment
D. attach the device to an external network to allow email enrollment
Answer: B

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NO.4 What does the acronym "GCM" stand for and how is it used?
A. Google Cloud Messaging and it is used to generate certificates
B. Google Certificate Manager and it is used to generate certificates
C. Google Cloud Messaging and it is used to push actions and commands to Android devices
D. Google Certificate Manager and it is used to push actions and commands to Android devices
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which action must an administrator perform to install Mobile Management on a Symantec
Mobile
Management Server (Site Server)?
A. log into the Symantec Management Console from the Site Server > download the necessary
files > install Symantec Mobile Management
B. download and launch the Symantec Installation Manager from Symantec's website on the Site
Server > install Symantec Mobile Management
C. install Symantec Agent on the Site Server > rollout the install to the Site Server from the
Symantec Management Console
D. push the installer to the Site Server from the Symantec Management Console > run the
UpdateSiteServer.exe that is on the Consoles Desktop
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which option does an administrator apply to content without requiring a content policy?
A. Allow Offline Access
B. Fail-safe Revocation Timer
C. Auto Upgrade
D. Content Expiry
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which two options does an administrator use to specify if profiles can be removed from an iOS
device? (Select two.)
A. the device user can be allowed to remove a policy without specifying a password
B. the device user can be restricted from removing all policies from a device
C. the device user can be restricted from removing a specific policy from a device
D. the device user can be allowed to remove a policy by specifying a password
E. the device user can be prompted to contact the administrator to remove a policy
Answer: A,D

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NO.8 Which file types are unacceptable for encrypted previews?
A. .doc, .docx
B. .xls, .xlsx
C. .pdf
D. .mp3, .mp4
Answer: D

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Exam Name: Symantec Technical Foundations: Security Solutions 1.0 (STS)
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Exam Code: 250-251
Exam Name: Administration of HA Solutions for UNIX (VCS 5.0)
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NO.1 When preparing to install VCS on the S1 and S2 systems, what should you do to verify software
compatibility? (Choose three.)
A.check the VCS release notes for supported software
B.run the installvcs recheck S1 S2 command
C.let the installvcs script check compatibility at install
D.run the installvcs ompat S1 S2 command
E.check the Symantec Enterprise Support website
Answer:A B E

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NO.2 Which statement is true about the violation trigger?
A.A violation trigger must be written as a shell script.
B.A violation trigger and notification are mutually exclusive.
C.A violation trigger is dependent on notification to work.
D.A violation trigger is automatically executed when events occur.
Answer:D

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NO.3 Which types of monitoring can be performed on Oracle resources? (Choose two.)
A.detail monitoring
B.basic level monitoring
C.kernel level monitoring
D.specific monitoring
E.service monitoring
Answer:A B

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NO.4 Which VCS resource attribute setting prevents VCS from interpreting a Monitor entry point timeout as a
resource fault?
A.MonitorFault=0
B.MonitorFaultTimeout=240
C.FaultMonitor=240
D.FaultOnMonitor=4
Answer:D

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NO.5 Which attribute enables VCS to bring a resource online after it goes offline unexpectedly and before
faulting the resource?
A.RestartLimit
B.OnlineRestartLimit
C.AutoRestartLimit
D.OnlineRetryLimit
Answer:A

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NO.6 VCS is to be installed in a secure environment where remote installation between systems is
impossible. The VCS configuration parameters were captured in a file using the installation script on the
first system. What can be used to read the contents of the configuration file when executing locally on the
remaining systems?
A.-autoconfig
B.-configfile
C.-vcsconfig
D.-responsefile
Answer:D

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NO.7 Which directive in the llttab file defines a network interface for a heartbeat?
A.nic
B.link
C.heartbeat
D.hbdev
Answer:B

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NO.8 Which resource type attributes can be set in order to tune VCS failover characteristics? (Choose two.)
A.Flags
B.RestartLimit
C.ToleranceLimit
D.OfflineTimeout
E.OfflineMonitorInterval
Answer:B C

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Exam Code: 250-371
Exam Name: Administration of Symantec NetBackup 7.5 for Windows
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NO.1 Refer to the exhibit.
A backup is about to run, which is being sent to the "servers" volume pool, with a retention level of
1. The host properties displayed below have been enabled. allow multiple retentions per media allow
backups to span tape media allow media overwrite: ANSI, CPIO, DBR Which tape would Symantec
NetBackup 7.5 use for the backup if tape T00306 is unavailable?
A. T00301
B. T00303
C. T00305
D. T00308
E. T00309
Answer: C

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NO.2 A backup on tape is due to expire in one week. The administrator needs to keep the image available
for restore indefinitely. Which two methods can be used to accomplish this goal? (Select two.)
A. use the bpexpdate command to change the expiration date of the image
B. use the bpretlevel command to customize the retention level
C. use the bpimmedia command to freeze the tape
D. use the bpduplicate command to create a copy with an infinite retention
E. use the vmchange command to change the expiration date of the tape
Answer: A,D

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NO.3 The Symantec NetBackup administrator is concerned that the media server deduplication pool is using
more space than estimated. In which two places can the administrator find the amount of space used in
the media server deduplication pool? (Select two.)
A. Reports > Disk Storage Status
B. Device Monitor > Disk Pools
C. Reports > Disk Logs
D. Devices > Disk Pools
E. Reports > Disk Pool Status
Answer: D,E

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NO.4 A Symantec NetBackup 7.5 administrator at a hospital needs to store secure tape copies of protected
data to an offsite location. How can an administrator automatically eject tape media daily and create
detailed reports.?
A. enable the Encryption attribute on the vault policy to perform automated ejects and create reports
B. use tape drives that support hardware encryption and use a Vault policy to perform automated ejects
and create reports
C. use tape drives that support hardware encryption and use a storage lifecycle policy to perform
automated ejects and create reports
D. configure a storage lifecycle policy to enable automatic ejects and create reports, then enable the
Encryption attribute on the policy
Answer: B

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NO.5 An administrator must recover an expired image from a tape where only one remaining copy exists
and there are other unexpired images on the tape. How should the administrator proceed?
A. run the Tape Contents report
B. run an import on the tape
C. duplicate the unexpired images
D. verify the tape
Answer: B

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NO.6 An administrator needs to protect a large volume of data with millions of files to tape. Which policy
feature should the administrator use?
A. Use accelerator
B. Deduplication
C. Use multiple streams
D. FlashBackup
Answer: D

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NO.7 By default, new media is assigned to which volume pool during robot inventory without a configured
barcode rule?
A. Symantec NetBackup pool
B. Scratch pool
C. Default pool
D. None pool
Answer: A

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NO.8 Refer to the exhibit.
What will be the outcome of the policy shown in the exhibit?
A. The client will compress then encrypt the data before sending it to the media server.
B. The client will compress the data and then the media server will use tape drive encryption.
C. The client will send the data to the media server, which will compress and then encrypt the data.
D. The client will encrypt the data before sending it to the media server.
Answer: A

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