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Exam Code: C6010-G40
Exam Name: IBM SmartCloud Enterprise+ (SCE+) Sales Mastery Test
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Exam Code: P2090-080
Exam Name: IBM ISW-9.7 & Smart Analytics Technical Mastery Test v1
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NO.1 What is a client benefit to provisioning in SCE+?
A.time in days versus weeks
B.the ability to host the cloud in a customer data center
C.use of mainframe technology
D.the ability to use a private image
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which feature is a roadmap item for the SCE+ offering?
A.disaster recovery
B.virtual machine provisioning
C.hybrid cloud integration
D.iSeries operating systems
Answer: A

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NO.3 How does a customer notify IBM of a problem?
A.submitting a service request in the SCE+ portal
B.registering the problem with its IBM account representative
C.sending a monitoring alert to the IBM delivery team
D.opening a ticket with its internal help desk
Answer: A

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NO.4 What is an allowable option for a customer to modify a virtual machine (VM)?
A.add memory
B.change the operating system
C.move to a different physical server
D.export to its on-premise environment
Answer: A

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NO.5 A customer plans to use SCE+ virtual private network (VPN) topology-based access.The
customer needs more than one virtual local area network (vLAN).Which networking element
should the sales professional recommend?
A.virtual firewall
B.virtual load balancer
C.virtual network hub
D.virtual intrusion detection server
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which two geographical locations were first used to deliver the SCE+ offering? (Choose two.)
A.Raleigh, North Carolina
B.Tokyo, Japan
C.Ehningen, Germany
D.London, UK
E.Boulder, Colorado
Answer: A,C

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NO.7 Which contractual document should a sales professional use to respond to a customer
question regarding security roles and responsibilities?
A.Security (ISeC) Agreement
B.Internet Security Systems Contract (ISSC)
C.International Agreement
D.Security Services Contracts Online (COL)
Answer: A

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NO.8 A sales professional needs to change the price of a virtual machine (VM).Which option should
the sales professional adjust?
A.European Union labor adder
B.number of virtual machines
C.virtual private network (VPN)
D.data center location
Answer: A

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Exam Code: A4040-129
Exam Name: Assessment: IBM i 7.1 Administration
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Exam Code: C2010-503
Exam Name: IBM Tivoli Monitoring V6.3 Fundamentals
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Exam Code: A2090-614
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NO.1 Jar for Service Management accelerates deployment, integration, and workflow automation
across which tools?
A. Only IBM tools
B. Only third-party tools
C. Only IBM and partnertools
D. IBM, partner, and third-partytools
Answer: D

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NO.2 What is a potential EIF destination?
A. Tivoli Event Reporter
B. Tivoli Enterprise Portal
C. Tivoli Netcool EIF Probe
D. IBM Tivoli Netcool/OMNibus
Answer: D

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NO.3 If an agent is going to save its metric data in the Tivoli Data Warehouse, it must communicate
with which two components? (Choose two.)
A. Warehouse Proxyagent
B. Tivoli Enterprise Portal Server
C. Tivoli Enterprise Monitoring Server
D. Summarization and Pruning agent
E. Relational Database Management Server
Answer: A,C

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NO.4 Which statement is correct regarding the Hub Tivoli Enterprise Monitoring Server (TEMS) in an
IBM Tivoli Monitoring V6.3 environment?
A. There can only be one active Hub TEMS in each environment.
B. There can be more than one active Hub TEMS in each environment.
C. The number of needed Hub TEMS is determined by an updated file during installation.
D. The number of needed Hub TEMS is dependent on the number of active links to agents.
Answer: A

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NO.5 What is monitored by the Summarization and Pruning agent (SPA)?
A. The run time and completion of the SPA
B. The connection to the Tivoli Enterprise Portal Server
C. The size of the tables being summarized and pruned
D. Availability of space on the disk where the Tivoli Data Warehouse is located
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which type of event integration can be performed with IBM Tivoli Netcool/OMNI bus?
A. Bi-directional using the Event Console Agent
B. Bi-directional using the Event Integration Facility
C. Uni-directional using the Event Integration Facility
D. Uni-directional using the IBM Tivoli Monitoring Situation Update Forwarder
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which statement is true regarding Tivoli Enterprise Portal Server V6.3 (TEPS)?
A. Oracle is now a supported database for TEPS.
B. Authorization policy enforcement is enabled by default.
C. IBM Tivoli Monitoring V6.3 strongly recommends the upgrade to Java 6.
D. The dashboard data provider is optionally enabled during the TEPS configuration.
Answer: D

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NO.8 If Java is not initially installed, which version is installed when the Tivoli Enterprise Portal client
is run?
A. IBMJava6
B. IBMJava7
C. Oracle Java 6
D. Oracle Java 7
Answer: B

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Exam Code: A2040-920
Exam Name: Assessment: IBM WebSphere Portal 7.0 Deployment and Administration
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Exam Code: P2070-072
Exam Name: IBM Content Collector Technical Mastery Test v1
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NO.1 When configuring a task in the Configuration Manager, where is the task route
displayed?
A. In the design pane
B. In the configuration pane
C. In the explore pane
D. In the task route pane
Answer: A

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NO.2 What product can be migrated to ICC?
A. Commonstore
B. Email Manager
C. Records Crawler
D. All of the above
Answer: D

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NO.3 In a Microsoft Exchange environment, the ICC E-mail Connector service must be
configured to logon as
what user?
A. Local administrator
B. Email server administrator
C. ICC administrator
D. Repository administrator
Answer: B

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NO.4 If a user wants to configure an ICC system to manually collect additional archiving
information(metadata)
for email, where is that done?
A. For P8, in Workplace forms
B. In Configuration Manager
C. For Content Manager 8, in Webi
D. On the email server
Answer: B

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NO.5 What objects are configured to define the item types or document classes that will be
used for ICC email
Search?
A. Search collection files
B. Archive mapping and search configuration files
C. Search template and form files
D. Archive itemtype and class templates
Answer: B

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Exam Code: C2070-587
Exam Name: IBM FileNet P8 V5.1, Deployment Professional
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Exam Code: A2010-023
Exam Name: Assessment: IBM Tivoli Support Provider Tools and Processes
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NO.1 Where can the most thorough searches on support be performed?
A.anywhere with a search dialog
B.top header of any IBM.com web page
C.always from a specific product support page
D.IBM Software Support Home page IBM.com/software/support
Answer:D

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NO.2 Which two resources are available on the IBM developerWorks website? (Choose two.)
A.Latest test fixes released by development.
B.Software licenses for proof of concept installs.
C.Web-based community forums and Wiki pages.
D.List of new features still under development for each product.
E.Technical tutorials and demos for developers and administrators.
Answer:C E

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NO.3 Which two statements are true regarding Support Provider Level 1 Customer Support?
(Choose
two.)
A.Level 1 Support is responsible for taking the first support call from a Customer (during
normal business
hours, Monday - Friday in line with IBMs standard 5x8 support).
B.Level 1 Support is responsible for testing new software versions of IBM products and
communicating
the release of said software to clients that have purchased it from IBM.
C.Level 1 Support is responsible for incorporating and testing any program fix provided by
Level 3
Support (as appropriate), and delivering or communicating the problem resolution, bypass,
circumvention,
or other notice of restriction to the End User.
D.Level 1 Support is responsible logging all calls in an electronic call management system
capable of
opening an internal PMR or other form of trouble ticket that captures and can report in
electronic format
historic information relating to a problem, from the first Call through to the resolution of the
problem.
E.Level 1 Support is responsible for logging all calls in an XML, Excel or Lotus 123 spread
sheet so that
Level 2 support can open an internal PMR or other form of trouble ticket that captures and
can report in
electronic format historic information relating to a problem, from the first call through to the
resolution of
the problem.
Answer:C D

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NO.4 What are two responsibilities of the Primary Site Technical Contact? (Choose two.)
A.Opening all PMRs on behalf of all their Support Analysts.
B.Downloading software from Passport Advantage for use by the end user.
C.Assigning up to nine Secondary Site Technical Contact per end user contract.
D.Uploading all End User Debug files to ESR/SR on behalf of their support analysts.
E.Accept or deny a request for a Support Provider's engineer to obtain access to an end
users account.
Answer:C E

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NO.5 When searching the knowledge base on the IBM Support website, what is the best
search
strategy for finding targeted information?
A.Select just one product and only one keyword.
B.Select the product, operating system and a date range.
C.Target a wide set of records, by using just one keyword.
D.Select the product(s) and other specific criteria for which a solution is required.
Answer:D

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Exam Code: A2040-914
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NO.1 When moving an HP-UX based application workload from an HP Superdome onto a Power
Systems server, which operating system will provide the easiest transition'?
A. AIX
B. IBMi
C. Red Hat Enterprise Linux
D. SuSe Linux Enterprise Server
Answer: A

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NO.2 A prospective customer is running a database application that cannot be upgraded.
They plan to replace it with a DB2-based server environment that can scale in the future.
The prospect has asked why anyone would choose Power Systems servers when Intel-based servers
cost less.
Which of the following is an effective response?
A. DB2 on Power Systems delivers more than ten times the throughput per core than on Intel due to
exploitation of SMT.
B. Core for core, Intel-based servers have more expensive DB2 software licensing costs when
compared to PowerSystems.
C. Power Systems servers offer a lower TCO due to greater processor power, virealization
technologies and bothhorizontal and vertical growth.
D. Power Systems servers offer superiority in energy-management technologies and use
dramatically less energy whilegenerating much less heat.
Answer: C

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NO.3 An environment for a popular ISV application used on Power Systems must be sized.
Which IBM tool or resource should be used?
A. Techline
B. eConfigurator
C. Facts and Features
D. System Planning Tool
Answer: A

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NO.4 A customer is moving a small application from an existing POWER7 server to a new system in a
new location.
They will be moving an existing 12X I/O drawer to the new server
Which of the following configuration will support a 12X PCI-X expansion drawer?
A. A4-corePower710
B. A 4-core Power 720
C. A 6-core Power 730
D. A 6-core Power 720
Answer: D

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NO.5 A customer has two production IBM POWER7+ 750s in the same data center.
The customer has an application in an LPAR that needs to run 24x7.
What is required to allow the planned migration of that LPAR to the second system?
A. A shared Hardware Management Console One dedicated core on each Power 750
B. PowerVM Enterprise Edition on both systems SAN storage accessible to the VIO Servers on each
Power 750
C. Systems Director Enterprise Edition A common shared processor pool on each Power 750
D. PowerVM Standard Edition Dual system accessibility to virtual SCSI or virtual Fibre Channel
Answer: B

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NO.6 What is a unique RAS characteristic of Power Systems Enterprise servers compared to Power
Systems Express servers?
A. Dynamic Processor Sparing
B. Dynamic Processor Deallocation
C. Dynamic Processor Error Recovery
D. Dynamic Service Processor Failover
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NO.7 What is a reason that POWER7 technology can provide higher throughput than Xeon x86
technology?
A. POWER7 supports more DIMM slots than x86.
B. POWER7 has higher redundancy of registers than x86.
C. POWER7 supports more virealization technologies than x86.
D. POWER7 supports 4 threads per core, while Xeon supports only 2.
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NO.8 What is the benefit of using the Active Memory Expansion feature in Power Systems servers?
A. Memory capacity will virtually be doubled.
B. Memory will be disk-cached to improve performance.
C. Memory will be allocated to an LPARto improve performance.
D. Memory contents are compressed to allow for greater utilization.
Answer: D

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NO.1 How is an XForms submission handled by the Translator Server?
A. The Client's Browser sends the XForms submission as XML directly to the submission URL.
B. The Client's Browser sends the XForms submission as HTML directly to the submission URL.
C. The Translator Server sends the XForms submission as XML directly to the submission URL.
D. The Translator Server sends the XForms submission as HTML directly to the submission URL.
Answer: C

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NO.2 When creating a field that can change its height based on the amount of data it contains,
which of
the following should occur?
A. The field should also be able to change width dynamically.
B. Items that appear below the field on the page should come after it in the build order.
C. Items that appear below the field should be relatively positioned so that they move up or down
as the field changes size.
D. Items that appear below the field on the page should come after it in the build order, and should
be relativelypositioned so that they move upor down as the field changes size.
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which of the statements below describes a benefit of XFDL?
A. XFDL simplifies HTML programming.
B. XFDL makes pre-populating form data easier because of its code level engine.
C. XFDL future-proofs electronic forms as they are in human-readable XML.
D. XFDL documents can be rendered by any word processing software.
Answer: C

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NO.4 Where can spell checking for the Designer be enabled or disabled?
A. In the Spell Check section of the Forms Designer heading in the Preferences.
B. On the file system, by removing or replacing the dictionary files in the Designer's install folder.
C. In the global form properties dialog.
D. From the Preferences dialog opened from the Viewer's toolbar.
Answer: A

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NO.5 What is the default namespace prefix for an IBM Form?
A. xmlns:xforms
B. xmlns:default
C. xmlns:custom
D. xmlns:xfdl
Answer: D

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NO.6 Jane is designing a form with three pages. Pages one and two are built with a wizard style
interface, and page three is meant only for printing. How can Jane setup her form so that when
the form is printed, only page three prints?
A. Jane should only put a print button on page three, then it will be the only one that shows up
when the form is printed.
B. Jane must break up her form into two separate forms: one for the wizard and one for printing.
C. Jane can set theprint settingsproperty of page three to 'on', andprint settingsproperty for pages
one and two to 'off'.
D. Jane would create a "keep" filter, specifying page three as the only page to print.
Answer: D

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NO.7 When calling one of the functions contained within the Viewer IFX, all of the following
statements
are true EXCEPT which one?
A. You must add the 'viewer' prefix to the function call.
B. Viewer functions only work when using the Viewer.
C. There is a function within the Viewer IFX to display a message box.
D. Viewer functions can be called from XForms actions.
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which of the following is the best practice to set a IBM Forms data element as read only?
A. <xforms:bind nodeset="birthdate" readonly="true()"/>
B. <field sid="birthdate"><readonly>on</readonly></field>
C. <xforms:bind nodeset="birthdate" readonly="true"/>
D. <xforms:bind nodeset="birthdate" properties="readonly"/>
Answer: A

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NO.1 What has the most up to date information about supported components to help plan
an installation?
A. Quick Install Guide
B. Administrator Guide
C. Installation and Setup Guide
D. Software Product Compatibility Reports
Answer: D

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NO.2 A customer wants to monitor critical processes on their Unix servers. During the
analysis it is found that
this will require the use of regular expressions. Can this be done using IBM Tivoli Monitoring
V6.2.3
(ITM)?
A. Yes. but a Universal agent is required.
B. Yes; but a custom agent must be built using the Agent Builder.
C. Yes; use the Tivoli Enterprise Monitoring Agent for Unix operating systems.
D. No; ITM does not support the use of regular expressions for the names of processes.
Answer: C

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NO.3 In IBM Tivoli Monitoring V6.2.3, which condition should be true if the database used
for the data
warehouse is Microsoft SQL Server?
A. the Warehouse Proxy agent should be installed on Windows
B. the Tivoli Enterprise Portal Server should be installed on Windows
C. the Tivoli Enterprise Monitoring Server should be installed on Windows
D. the Summarization and Pruning agent should be installed on Windows
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which database and version is supported by IBM Tivoli Data Warehouse?
A. Oracle 9g
B. Oracle 10g
C. IBMDB2V8.5
D. IBM DB2 V7.2
Answer: B

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NO.5 What are two ways to configure historical data collection? (Choose two.)
A. use the Command Line Interface history set of tacmd commands
B. through the History Collection Configuration window in the Tivoli Enterprise Portal
C. log into the Summarization and Pruning Agent GUI and select Configure Historical Data
Collection
D. use the separately installed Historical Data Collection Tool and connect to the Tivoli Data
Warehouse
E. right-click the Tivoli Enterprise Monitoring Server icon in the Manage Tivoli Enterprise
Monitoring
Services GUI and select Historical Data Collection
Answer: A,B

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NO.6 Which statement is true about the Tivoli Monitoring Startup Center.?
A. it upgrades the current environment
B. it is a prerequisite component that must be installed
C. it deploys an entire IBM Tivoli Monitoring V6.2.3 environment
D. it helps discover all monitored servers and any Tivoli Enterprise Monitoring agents
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which three APIs are used by the IBM Tivoli Monitoring V6.2.3 agent less monitoring
agent to monitor
multiple sources? (Choose three.)
A. CIM
B. Java
C. WMI
D. SNMP
E. POSIX
F. .NET Framework
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.8 What does the activation of the self-describing agent feature trigger?
A. The agent configuration information is stored in a central inventory database.
B. The agent platform-specific information is stored in the Tivoli Enterprise Portal Server
embedded
database.
C. The agent environment file is given to the Warehouse Proxy agent and stored in the Tivoli
Data
Warehouse.
D. The agent application support files are distributed to and installed on all Tivoli Enterprise
Management
Servers.
Answer: D

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NO.1 Where can the most thorough searches on support be performed?
A.anywhere with a search dialog
B.top header of any IBM.com web page
C.always from a specific product support page
D.IBM Software Support Home page IBM.com/software/support
Answer:D

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NO.2 Which two statements are true regarding Support Provider Level 1 Customer Support?
(Choose
two.)
A.Level 1 Support is responsible for taking the first support call from a Customer (during
normal business
hours, Monday - Friday in line with IBMs standard 5x8 support).
B.Level 1 Support is responsible for testing new software versions of IBM products and
communicating
the release of said software to clients that have purchased it from IBM.
C.Level 1 Support is responsible for incorporating and testing any program fix provided by
Level 3
Support (as appropriate), and delivering or communicating the problem resolution, bypass,
circumvention,
or other notice of restriction to the End User.
D.Level 1 Support is responsible logging all calls in an electronic call management system
capable of
opening an internal PMR or other form of trouble ticket that captures and can report in
electronic format
historic information relating to a problem, from the first Call through to the resolution of the
problem.
E.Level 1 Support is responsible for logging all calls in an XML, Excel or Lotus 123 spread
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Level 2 support can open an internal PMR or other form of trouble ticket that captures and
can report in
electronic format historic information relating to a problem, from the first call through to the
resolution of
the problem.
Answer:C D

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NO.3 When searching the knowledge base on the IBM Support website, what is the best
search
strategy for finding targeted information?
A.Select just one product and only one keyword.
B.Select the product, operating system and a date range.
C.Target a wide set of records, by using just one keyword.
D.Select the product(s) and other specific criteria for which a solution is required.
Answer:D

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NO.4 Which two resources are available on the IBM developerWorks website? (Choose two.)
A.Latest test fixes released by development.
B.Software licenses for proof of concept installs.
C.Web-based community forums and Wiki pages.
D.List of new features still under development for each product.
E.Technical tutorials and demos for developers and administrators.
Answer:C E

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NO.5 What are two responsibilities of the Primary Site Technical Contact? (Choose two.)
A.Opening all PMRs on behalf of all their Support Analysts.
B.Downloading software from Passport Advantage for use by the end user.
C.Assigning up to nine Secondary Site Technical Contact per end user contract.
D.Uploading all End User Debug files to ESR/SR on behalf of their support analysts.
E.Accept or deny a request for a Support Provider's engineer to obtain access to an end
users account.
Answer:C E

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Exam Code: A4120-784
Exam Name: Assessment: IBM PureFlex Technical Expert V1
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Exam Code: C2180-189
Exam Name: Blueworks Live; IBM Business Process Manager Express or Standard Edition V7.5.1, BPM Analysis
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NO.1 A company needs to improve their hiring process and hired a BPM analyst to map the current
state. During the discovery session, the business subject matter experts (SMEs) indicate to the BPM
analyst that the hiring request is reviewed by both the human resource admin and the human
resource manager. How should the BPM analyst document the participant role for this activity?
A. Assign the admin as the participant since the admin is paid less.
B. Assign the manager as the participant since the admin reports to the manager.
C. Break the "Review" task into separate tasks and define who does what.
D. Pick either the admin or the manager and assign the "Review" task to that role.
Answer: C

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NO.2 A company needs to improve their hiring process and hired a BPM analyst to map the current
state. What is the first thing the BPM analyst should do while constructing a discovery map? Identify
the:
A. Value-Add activities.
B. sub processes within the hiring process.
C. start and end points of the hiring process.
D. activity where the maximum problems lie.
Answer: C

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NO.3 A BPM analyst is designing a process in the Process Diagram View, and realizes the process
must account for a technical exception following an activity. What symbol in the BlueWorks Live
needs to be used for this technical exception?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Answer: B

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NO.4 A BPM analyst needs to make a change to the connections in the following process diagram.
The order of activities needs to be changed so that "Grind Beans" is followed by "Brew Coffee".
"Heat Milk" will come last after "Brew Coffee".
How should the BPM analyst make this change to the connection?
A. Click on the "Brew Coffee" activity and drag it onto the connection between "Grind Beans" and
"Heat Milk"
B. Click on the "Grind Beans" activity and drag it onto the connection between "Heat Milk" and
"Brew Coffee"
C. Click on the connection between "Heat Milk" and "Brew Coffee" and drag the connection arrow
to "Grind Beans"
D. Click on the connection between "Grind Beans" and "Heat Milk" and drag the connection arrow
to "Brew Coffee".
Answer: A

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NO.5 A company needs to improve their hiring process and hired a BPM analyst to map the current
state. During the process discovery session, the team identifies that the process steps to review the
"hiring" request is the same as the process steps to review a "promotion/pay rise" request. What
should the BPM analyst use to map the activities needed for the review of the "hiring" request in
Blueworks Live?
A. a sub-process
B. a different color
C. a linked process
D. a separate milestone
Answer: C

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NO.6 A BPM analyst has modeled the following process. However, after the "Extract Data" and
"Send data use case template to client", the client has stated that "Complete data scenarios" should
be done.
How should the BPM analyst adjust the process?
A. Join A and B
B. Insert join before A, and move B after A
C. Insert Join before B, and move A after B
D. Move B before A, and insert a join after A
Answer: B

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NO.7 During the Process Discovery phase, the BPM analyst needs to identify who must fully
participate in the Process Improvement and Discovery Workshops (PIDW). Of the many roles in a
BPM project, which roles must fully participate?
A. Process Owner, Subject Matter Expert
B. Technical Consultant, Process Owner, BPM Developer
C. Technical Consultant, Process Owner, Project Manager
D. Project Manager, Process Owner, Subject Matter Expert
Answer: A

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NO.8 A BPM analyst is creating a process model for requesting a renovation permit. The BPM
analyst is using the following description of the first activity:
"One of our municipal office clerks receives a paper permit application from the local resident, an
applicant. The clerk first looks up the resident's name and address in our system, then enters the
information from the paper application into the system, and assigns a temporary permit number to
the application. When the application entry is complete, the clerk sends it to a manager to assign it
to an adjudicator."
Which name should the BPM analyst use for the first task that accurately describes the activity and
follows recommended naming conventions?
A. Application Entry
B. Create Application
C. Clerk Receive and Enter Application
D. Lookup name, create application, assign number, and send it to the manager
Answer: B

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Exam Code: JN0-740
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NO.1 What is the initial default username and password for all ScreenOS devices?
A. administrator/password
B. root/password
C. netscreen/netscreen
D. admin/netscreen1
Answer: D

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NO.2 By default, from which hardware component is the startup copy of the ScreenOS loaded?
A. NVRAM
B. TFTP server
C. internal flash
D. PCMCIA card
Answer: C

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NO.3 When a firewall receives the first packet in a series, what will it immediately do?
A. Check its route table.
B. Check its session table.
C. Determine if traffic is crossing zones.
D. Verify that it is not malformed or a fragment.
Answer: D

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NO.4 What is a zone used for?
A. to bundle interfaces together for redundancy
B. to bundle interfaces sharing identical security requirements
C. to provide a tunneled connection across a network
D. to protect against spam attacks
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which security feature provides secure tunnels across a public network?
A. dynamic routing
B. Web filtering
C. IPsec
D. firewall filters
Answer: A

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NO.6 In the flow decision process, the system has found a route entry matching the packet
destination IP .
Which pair will identify the policy that is applied to this packet?
A. source and destination MAC
B. source and destination interface
C. source and destination TCP port
D. source and destination IP address
Answer: B

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7. Using the CLI, if the startup copy of the ScreenOS is corrupted, from which location can an
image be loaded?
A. TFTP server
B. internal flash
C. PCMCIA card
D. Compact Flash Card
Answer: A

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8. In the packet forwarding decision process, how is the second packet handled differently than
the first in a series of allowed interzone packets?
A. The second packet causes an ARP query.
B. The second packet is checked against the policy table.
C. The second packet is forwarded without a sanity check.
D. The second packet is forwarded without checking the route table.
Answer: D

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9. By default, from which hardware component is the startup copy of the ScreenOS loaded?
A. ROM
B. NVRAM
C. TFTP server
D. Internal Flash
E. PCMCIA Card
Answer: D

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10. Using the CLI, if the startup copy of the ScreenOS on a NS-204 is corrupted, from which two
(2) alternate locations can an image be loaded?
A. ROM
B. TFTP server
C. Internal Flash
D. PCMCIA Card
E. Compact Flash Card
Answer: B,E

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11. Which operating system is used on a NetScreen device?
A. IOS
B. Junos
C. FreeBSD
D. ScreenOS
Answer: A

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12. A ScreenOS firewall has one interface in the user zone and one interface in the servers zone.
Both interfaces are addressed and active. The configured policy allows user traffic from the user
zone to the FTP server in the servers zone, but the traffic does not cross the firewall from the client
to the server.
What is the most likely problem with the firewall?
A. The ScreenOS firewall has no physical connection to the FTP server.
B. The ALG option on the ScreenOS firewall has not been enabled for FTP traffic.
C. The ScreenOS firewall does not have a route defined to the FTP server's subnet.
D. The ScreenOS firewall does not have a route defined to the FTP client's subnet.
Answer: C

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13. Which two devices run ScreenOS software? (Choose two.)
A. NetScreen-5200
B. NetScreen-5400
C. SRX240
D. MX480
Answer: C,D

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14. When is NAT used?
A. for Layer 2 switching
B. for MPLS VPNs
C. to translate between IP addresses
D. for secure tunnels
Answer: B

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15. In the packet flow decision process, which pair identifies interzone traffic?
A. source and destination MAC
B. source and destination interface
C. source and destination TCP port
D. source and destination IP address
Answer: B

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Exam Code: M2180-716
Exam Name: IBM MobileFirst Sales Mastery Test v1
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Exam Code: C2180-319
Exam Name: IBM WebSphere Application Server Developer Tools V8.5 with Liberty Profile
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Exam Code: A4120-784
Exam Name: Assessment: IBM PureFlex Technical Expert V1
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NO.1 TRUE or FALSE: Tealeaf CX Mobile is an add-on to the Tealeaf CX platform?
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A

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Reference:http://www-03.ibm.com/software/products/en/cx-mobile

NO.2 Which of the following best describes IBM MobileFirst?
A. MobileFirst is a portfolio of solutions enabling customers to support the full lifecycle of mobile
application development
B. MobileFirst is an architecture enabling customers to develop a business process solution and
requires customers to start by identifying their wireless networking capabilities
C. MobileFirst is an approach to creating mobile applications for companies that haven't yet built
their first mobile application
D. MobileFirst is an IBM product that enables customers to purchase everything they need to build
mobile applications by purchasing a single packaged product
Answer: A

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NO.3 What are the DevOps for Mobile Continuous Testing automation capabilities?
A. Browser Simulator, Unit Test, User Acceptance Test
B. Selenium Unit Test, UlAndroidTest, Integration Test
C. Functional Testing, Web Service Functional Testing, Performance Testing, Test Virtualization, and
collaborative manual testing
D. Record and Playback only in device clouds
Answer: C

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NO.4 What is the major enhancement in AppScan 8.7 for mobile security?
A. Support for Blackberry applications
B. Support for touch screen mobile devices
C. Integration with Worklight
D. Support for Objective-C
Answer: D

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NO.5 Where would you go to find more information on Trusteer Products?
A. Trusteer Sales Kit
B. Trusteer Product Overview
C. Trusteer Mobile Datasheet
D. All of the above
Answer: D

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NO.6 The IBM Mobile Customer Engagement (Xtify) portfolio includes everything EXCEPT:
A. XML-formatted documents
B. Native Push
C. Rich Push
D. Web Push
E. SMS solutions
Answer: A

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