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Exam Code: JN0-355
Exam Name: Junos Pulse Secure Access, Specialist (JNCIS-SA)
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Exam Code: JN0-120
Exam Name: Juniper networks Certified internet associate.e(jncia-e)
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Exam Code: JN0-692
Exam Name: Service Provider Routing and Switching Support, Professional
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NO.1 What does Junos Pulse Collaboration provide?
A.group instant messaging services
B.Web-based meeting services
C.corporate file sharing services
D.conference call services
Answer:C

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NO.2 Which Junos Pulse Secure Access Service component controls the user login URL mapping to
the
appropriate backend authentication service?
A.authentication server
B.authentication realm
C.resource policy
D.sign-in policy
Answer:D

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NO.3 How are user role-mapping rules processed by the Junos Pulse Secure Access Service gateway?
A.All rules are processed in a top-down fashion for the best match. If no match is found, the user is
not
allowed to sign in to the realm.
B.All rules are processed in a top-down fashion for the best match. If no match is found, the user is
assigned to the default role.
C.All rules are processed in a top-down fashion for all eligible matches. If no match is found, the
user is
not allowed to sign into the realm.
D.All rules are processed in a top-down fashion for all eligible matches. If no match is found, the
user is
assigned to the default role.
Answer:D

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NO.4 What does Secure Virtual Workspace (SVW) provide?
A.a virtual desktop on a client desktop
B.protected file storage on a remote server
C.a protected workspace on a client virtual machine
D.a protected workspace on the client desktop
Answer:B

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NO.5 Which two statements describe the Content Intermediation Engine (CIE)? (Choose two.)
A.The CIE is responsible for the redirect function.
B.The CIE is responsible for processing incoming requests and outgoing content.
C.The CIE rewrites Web content.
D.The CIE rewrites application content using Junos Pulse.
Answer:AC

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Exam Code: JN0-102
Exam Name: Junos, Associate (JNCIA-Junos)
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Exam Code: JN0-311
Exam Name: WX, Associate(JNCIA-WX)
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NO.1 Which statement is true about compression subnets?
A. Compression subnets are turned on by default.
B. Compression subnets advertise remote routes.
C. Compression subnets are usually LAN-side subnets.
D. Compression subnets are usually WAN-side subnets.
Answer: C

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NO.2 What is NSC's functionality?
A. Web caching
B. sequence caching
C. memory-based compression
D. next-generation compression
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which three locations in WebView allow you to confirm that the endpoints are configured properly?
(Choose three.)
A. Monitor > Endpoints
B. Acceleration > Endpoints
C. Device Setup > Endpoints
D. Compression > Endpoints
E. Admin > Maintenance > Display Configuration
Answer:ADE

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NO.4 Which two environments would take advantage of TCP Acceleration (AFP)? (Choose two.)
A. satellite networks
B. low-latency networks
C. long-haul link with 95% compressibility.
D. long-haul link with 10% compressibility.
Answer:AC

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NO.5 Which two statements describe the criteria bandwidth detection uses to dynamically alter bandwidth
allocation? (Choose two.)
A. Throughput is raised as latency decreases.
B. Throughput is based on available bandwidth.
C. Throughput is lowered as latency decreases.
D. Latency is measured by SYNs returned for each metapacket.
Answer:AB

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NO.6 Which two patented or patent-pending compression and caching technologies are used for WX/WXC
devices? (Choose two.)
A. Network Sequence Caching (NSC)
B. Molecular Sequence Caching (MSC)
C. Network Sequence Reduction (NSR)
D. Molecular Sequence Reduction (MSR)
Answer:AD

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NO.7 Which three statistics does the Executive report summarize? (Choose three.)
A. latency and loss
B. compression results
C. traffic (by application)
D. CRC and alignment errors
E. user access (by username)
Answer: ABC

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NO.8 Which two configurations are made using the QoS Setup Wizard? (Choose two.)
A. Assign applications to traffic classes.
B. Use ToS/DSCP values for traffic classes.
C. Exclude subnets from QoS management.
D. Select dedicated vs. over-subscribed circuits.
Answer:AD

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Exam Code: JN0-570
Exam Name: JN0-570 JNCIS-SSL EXAM
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Exam Code: JN0-541
Exam Name: IDP, Associate(JNCIA-IDP)
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Exam Code: JN0-533
Exam Name: FWV, Specialist (JNCIS-FWV)
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NO.1 Which two statements are true about VPN Monitor on a ScreenOS device? (Choose two.)
A. With a route-based VPN failure, VPN Monitor marks the tunnel interface status as down.
B. With a policy-based VPN failure, VPN Monitor marks the tunnel interface status as down.
C. VPN Monitor uses UDP to detect a VPN connection failure.
D. VPN Monitor uses ICMP to detect a VPN connection failure.
Answer: A,D

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NO.2 HostA is in the Trust zone and has an IP address of. ServerA is a Web server in the DMZ zone
and has an IP address of.
Which three configuration statements are required to allow traffic from HostA to communicate with
ServerA? (Choose three.)
A. ssg5-> set address Trust HostA / 32
B. ssg5-> set policy from DMZ to Trust ANY ANY ANY permit
C. ssg5-> set address DMZ ServerA / 32
D. ssg5-> set policy from Trust to DMZ HostA ServerA HTTP permit
E. ssg5-> set address Trust HostA / 32
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.3 You want to set up a last resort route and prevent route lookups in either the source-based
routing table or the destination-based routing table.
What should you do?
A. Disable SIBR and create a default route in the trust-vr table using the null interface as the
outgoing interface with a higher metric than other routes.
B. Disable SIBR and create a default route in the trust-vr table using the null interface as the
outgoing interface with a lower metric than other routes.
C. Enable SIBR and create a default route in the SIBR table using the null interface as the outgoing
interface with a higher metric than other routes.
D. Enable SIBR and create a default route in the SIBR table using the null interface as the outgoing
interface with a lower metric than other routes.
Answer: C

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NO.4 -- Exhibit -set admin name "admin" set admin password "nOsYMqrbAs/McFsJrs6HwcIt3AF6yn"
set admin user "User1" password "nLZwKErINPPCcphC6sFMXrJ" privilege "read-only" set admin port
8080 set admin access attempts 5 set admin access lock-on-failure 5 set admin auth web timeout 10
set admin auth server "Local" -- Exhibit -
User1 wants to create the policy in the ScreenOS device, but is not successful. Referring to the
exhibit, what is the problem?
A. The User1 account has been suspended.
B. User1 does not have any account in this device.
C. User1 logged in to the device with wrong port.
D. User1 does not have the proper permission to create a policy.
Answer: D

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NO.5 Click the Exhibit button.
Which two statements are true regarding the route shown in the exhibit? (Choose two.)
A. 5.5.5.0/ 24 was configured as a source route with a next-hop IP address of 1.1.1.1 in the trustvr.
B. 5.5.5.0/ 24 was configured as a destination route with a next-hop IP address of 1.1.1.1 in the
trust-vr.
C. 5.5.5.0/ 24 was configured as a SIBR route with a next-hop IP address of 1.1.1.1 in the trust-vr.
D. 5.5.5.0/ 24 was configured as a permanent source route.
Answer: A,D

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NO.6 Click the Exhibit button.
In the exhibit, you have configured the MIP address 1.1.8.64 on a ScreenOS device.
Which statement is correct?
A. It performs one-to-one address translation and maps 1.1.8.64 to 10.1.10.64.
B. It performs one-to-many address translation and maps 1.1.8.64 to a range from 10.1.10.64 to
10.1.10.71.
C. It performs range address translation and maps 1.1.8.64 to 10.1.10.64, 1.1.8.65 to 10.1.10.65,
etc..
D. It performs address translation using a random IP address from the pool for 10.1.10.64 / 29.
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which two statements are true about policy-based VPNs as compared to route-based IPsec
VPNs when using ScreenOS devices? (Choose two.)
A. For policy-based IPsec VPNs, you can configure 0.0.0.0/ 0 as the proxy ID on both VPN gateways
regardless of the security policy.
B. For route-based IPsec VPNs, you can configure 0.0.0.0/ 0 as the proxy ID on both VPN gateways
regardless of the security policy.
C. For route-based IPsec VPNs, the proxy ID is derived from the policy.
D. For policy-based IPsec VPNs, the proxy ID is derived from the policy.
Answer: B,D

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NO.8 Which two configuration elements are synchronized between the members of an NSRP cluster?
(Choose two.)
A. interface IP addresses
B. hostname
C. track IP configuration
D. static routes
Answer: A,D

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Exam Code: JN0-643
Exam Name: Enterprise Routing and Switching, Professional (JNCIP-ENT)
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Exam Code: JN0-332
Exam Name: Juniper Networks Certified Internet Specialist, SEC (JNCIS-SEC)
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Exam Code: JN0-696
Exam Name: Security Support, Professional (JNCSP-SEC)
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NO.1 A company is deploying a new 802.1X port-based security infrastructure to allow users to
access resources through wired Ethernet ports. However they recently deployed an RSA
token-based system for users to connect remotely. The network administrator wants to reuse the
same security database for 802.1X port-based security.
Which 802.1X authentication protocol is required?
A. EAP-TLS
B. LAN-PEAP
C. RSA-EAP
D. EAP-TTLS
Answer: D

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NO.2 Voice traffic is coming in on UDP port 17689. This traffic must be classified into the
expedited-forwarding forwarding class.
Which type of classifier is needed?
A. code point alias
B. rewrite marker
C. multifield
D. behavior aggregate
Answer: C

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NO.3 You are AS 6573.
Which AS path regular expression matches only routes originated in your AS?
A. "6573.*"
B. ".*"
C. "{"
D. "

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NO.1 You work as a buyer at KillTest .com. A piece of capital equipment is designed and specified so as to
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A. Technical documentation, including data sheets, performance specs, maintenance and operating
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B. The initial provisioning of high-risk spare parts for start-up and a one-year period thereafter
C. A promise to maintain equipment on an annual basis by the manufacturer or its authorized service
agent
D. A determination of whether equipment or services are taxable or tax-exempt
Answer: A, B, C

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NO.2 Which software type is BEST applicable when using in the analysis of a competitive bid?
A. Application
B. Interface
C. Scientific
D. Operating system
Answer: A

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NO.3 Choose two of the following options that are usually amongst the functions of the material manager of?
(Choose two)
A. Stores and receiving
B. Quality control
C. Traffic management
D. Accounts payable
Answer: A, C

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NO.4 Which of the following factors are causing growth in complexity of much procurements leading to an
increased trend towards:
A. suppliers partnering
B. cross-functional teams
C. risk factor management
D. strategic supplier alliances
Answer: B

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B. promoting the business to other participants
C. negotiating for the buying organization
D. discussing the advantages and disadvantages of various types of contractual arrangements
Answer: C

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NO.6 If a supplier's level of quality was unsatisfactory on past orders and the level of quality on current
orders is critical, which of the following options would be the BEST way to handle the situation?
A. Timely inspection by the buyer's company at the supplier's plant
B. Requiring the supplier to supply extra products to cover rejects
C. Require 100% inspection before the products leave the warehouse of the order by the buyer's
company's quality control department
D. Label "Quality of Material is Critical" on the purchase order
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which of the following procedures for dealing with businesses that have social or economical
disadvantages, if a purchasing manager considers: (Choose all that apply)
A. That the staff of such businesses may have had limited exposure to technical contract language
B. That exceptions may be needed to accommodate faster payment of invoices from such businesses
C. That goods or services of lower than usual quality may be accepted from such businesses
D. That such businesses may need information on the bidding process
Answer: A, C, D

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NO.8 Which of the following approaches focuses on cooperative rather than adversarial relationships with
suppliers?
A. single sourcing
B. cross-functional teams
C. supply base management
D. supplier partnerships
Answer: D

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NO.1 When generating alternatives why is an expanded number of choices desirable?
A.To make sure any 'pet' alternatives are considered.
B.To increase the chances of picking a winner.
C.To ensure a complete, balanced set of alternatives.
D.To ensure the recommendation gets approved.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which of the following activities is NOT part of Situation Appraisal?
A.Identify concerns.
B.Set priority.
C.Identify possible causes.
D.Plan involvement.
Answer: C

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NO.3 When confirming the most probable cause, you should choose methods that are
A.Easiest, quickest, cheapest, safest, surest.
B.Things that you can do right now.
C.Acceptable to everyone who will be involved.
D.Able to be done experimentally i.e.not in live.
Answer: A

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NO.4 Why are Turnaround Questions used when developing a problem specification?
A.To drill down to the most specific answer.
B.To get lots of information.
C.When you stop making progress
D.To involve more people.
Answer: A

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behavioural change?
a)Immediate Positive.
b)Immediate Negative.
c)Delayed Positive.
d)Delayed Negative.
A.a and b.
B.c and d.
C.a only.
D.b only.
Answer: C

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A.Extend the cause, extend the fix.
B.Identify likely causes, take preventive action.
C.Identify distinctions, identify changes.
D.Identify likely effects, plan contingent action.
Answer: A

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NO.7 In Decision Analysis, actions to reduce risk:
a)Take a great amount of planning.
b)Can be done quickly and simply.
c)Should only be done when the risks are high.
d)Should bring risk to an acceptable level.
A.a and b.
B.b and d.
C.c only.
D.d only.
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which of the following activities would initially help identify how green an organisation currently is?
A. Developing a Stakeholder Map.
B. Drafting an action register.
C. Holding a fact-finding workshop.
D. Creating a carbon accounting system.
Answer: C

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Exam Name: Administering IBM Connections 4.0
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NO.1 In which of the following scenarios is Informix the best fit?
A. Applications with variable and dynamic data records.
B. Large data warehouses requiring cubing and complex multi-dimensional queries.
C. Applications requiring dedicated hardware as part of the solution.
D. High-transaction OLTP workloads.
Answer: D

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NO.2 At the operating system level, what is the name of every Informix process?
A. informix
B. oninit
C. cpuvp
D. root
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which Informix utility allows you to change the logging mode for one or more
databases?
A. oninit
B. ondblog
C. onmode
D. ondbmode
Answer: B

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NO.4 The Flexible Grid technology of Informix offers which of the following benefits?
A. The ability to communicate with other non-IBM products.
B. The ability to perform administrative tasks on multiple sites from a single server with no
downtime.
C. The ability to replicate data between different versions and editions of Informix.
D. The ability to achieve redundancy using expensive hardware and third party software.
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which of the following is a valid VP class.?
A. PDQ
B. AIO
C. MACH11
D. OBJ
Answer: B

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NO.1 What action would an IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center V5.1 administrator take to create
a
new report using Cognos?
A. open the V5.1 Web-based GUI and select Reporting > Create a Basic Report
B. open the V5.1 Web-based GUI and select Reporting > Create a Cognos Report
C. open the V5.1 Web-based GUI and expand IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center > Reporting
> Create a Report
D. open the V5.1 Web-based GUI and expand IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center > Reporting
> Cognos Reporting
Answer: A

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NO.2 In IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center V5.1 stand-alone GUI, where can the status of a
performance monitoring job be checked on a switch that is still in progress?
A. In Fabric Manager > Switch Performance > Jobs panel,under Schedules section,select the
Performance Monitoring job,and then View LogFiles under Jobs for Selected Schedule section.
B. In Fabric Manager > Monitoring > Job Management panel,under Schedules section,select the
Performance Monitoring job,and then View LogFiles under Jobs for Selected Schedule section.
C. In IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center > Job Management panel,under Schedules
section,select the Performance Monitoring job,and then
View Log Files under Jobs for Selected Schedule section.
D. In IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center > Monitoring > Job Management panel,under
Schedules section,select the Performance Monitoringjob,then View Log Files under Jobs for
Selected Schedule section.
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which role can perform Fabric Manager functions and has limited access to other nodes?
A. Fabric Operator
B. SAN Administrator
C. Fabric Administrator
D. Productivity Center Administrator
Answer: C

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NO.4 IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center V5.1 can communicate with which component over
IPv6?
A. SRA Agents
B. Java Web Start
C. Rollup Reporting
D. SLP Directory Agents
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which steps correctly assign a group to a role when logged into the IBM Tivoli Storage
Productivity Center V5.1 (TSPC) stand-alone GUI as a user with TSPC superuser privileges?
A. use the Data Manager > Role-to-Group Mappings screen,assign the newly created or existing
OS/LDAP user group to selected TSPC roles,and click on the Save button
B. use the Job Management > Role-to-Group Mappings screen,assign the newly created or
existing OS/LDAP user group to selected TSPC roles,and click on the Save button
C. use the Configuration Utility > Role-to-Group Mappings screen,assign the newly created or
existing OS/LDAP user group to selected TSPCroles,and click on the Save button
D. use the Administrative Services > Configuration > Role-to-Group Mappings screen,assign the
newly created or existing OS/LDAP user groupto selected TSPC roles,and click on the Save
button
Answer: D

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NO.6 How can a user add two Storage Resource agents of different operating systems in a single job
in
the Create Storage Resource Agent Deployment window?
A. add credentials for one system,click Add,and click Add Host List to enter the second system
B. add credentials for one system,click Add,and click Add Agent List to enter the second system
C. add credentials for one system,click Add,and click Add Another Agent to enter the second
system
D. add credentials for one system,click Add,and click Add Storage Resource Agent to enter the
second system
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which storage system is supported by the storage optimizer in IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity
Center V5.1?
A. SVC 6.2
B. SONAS 1.3
C. DS8800 R6.3
D. Storwiz V7000U 1.3
Answer: A

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NO.8 In IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center V5.1, what are two options presented in the
Repocopy
tool for IBM DB2 Export when exporting data from repository tables? (Choose two.)
A. Export Using Text Files
B. Export Using DB2 Text Files
C. Export Using DB2 Native Format
D. Export Using Comma-separated Excel Sheet
E. Export Using Text Files Containing Comma-separated Values
Answer: A,C

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NO.1 After applying a package and executing the "Test Work" operation, the ClearQuest
Schema Designer wants to revert to the previous schema version. Which sequence provides
the correct
procedure?
A. export the schema usingcqload exportschema command, edit the exported schema to
remove the package, import the modified schema using cqload importschema command
B. delete the associated test database in order to "Undo Check Out" and revert to
the previous version of the schema
C. use "Undo Check Out" to revert to the previous version of the schema and use the
same test database
D. manuallydelete the applied package in order to "Undo Check Out" and revert to the
previous version of the schema
Answer: B

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NO.2 An administrator uses the Permission hook in the field to control the users' access
to the field. To make the hook work, what must the behavior of the field be set as?
A. READ_ONLY
B. MANDATORY
C. OPTIONAL
D. USE_HOOK
E. MANDATORY and USE_HOOK
Answer: D

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NO.3 In the ClearQuest Windows and Eclipse-based clients, which statement describes how
the query can be edited after its SQL query code is modified?
A. The Query administrator can still use the Query Editor tab and the Display Editor
tab to modify the query.
B. The Query administrator can use the Display Editor tab but not the Query Editor
tab to edit the query.
C. The Query administrator can use the SQL editor tab and the Display editor tab,
but no longer use the Query Editor tab to edit the query.
D. The Query administrator can use the SQL Editor tab, but no longer use the Query
Editor tab or the Display Editor tab to edit the query.
Answer: D

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NO.4 The ClearQuest user database stores all submitted change requests. Which two ways
can a user filter the change requests? (Choose two.)
A. use distribution charts to show how many records fall into defined categories
B. select an area of any chart and automatically run a query to retrieve the records
represented by that part of the chart
C. use aging and trend charts to show historical information about change requests
D. use doughnut charts to show data in rings where each ring represents a series of
change requests
Answer: A,C

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NO.5 Which two users can modify ClearQuest user administration settings? (Choose two.)
A. Active User
B. Super User
C. Security Administrator
D. Schema Designer
E. User Administrator
Answer: B,E

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NO.6 Which of the following statement is true?
A. In ClearQuest, the user can have only one role.
B. The user can createtheir own role.
C. The user can perform only designated activities based on the role in the schema
and its hierarchy.
D. The user can be deleted inClearQuest and the relationship in the database can be
withdrawn.
Answer: C

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NO.7 ClearQuestsupports PERL and VBScript as hook scripting languages. Which three
statements are true about scripts and hooks? (Choose three.)
A. Hooks can be written in VBScript only for Windows and in PERL for UNIX and
Windows.
B. VBScript has access to COM objects and PERL can gain access to COM objects
through third-party packages.
C. It is possible to write the same hook in VBScript and PERL inside a particular
schema version.
D. It is impossible to include SQL code statements in VBScript hooks.
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.8 The ClearQuest clients and server are installed in different time zones. What
defines the date and time values stored in the ClearQuest database? (Choose two.)
A. ClearQuest customization
B. user preferences
C. clock of the computer where theClearQuest client is located
D. clock of the computer where theClearQuest database is located
Answer: C,D

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Exam Name: Assessment: System z Sales V6
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Exam Code: A4040-109
Exam Name: Assessment: Power Systems Virtualization Technical Support for AIX and Linux -v2
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Exam Code: C2090-550
Exam Name: IBM solidDB and IBM solidDB Universal Cache
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NO.1 To execute the HotStandby administrative commands, which type of access privilege
would be
needed?
A. SYS_ADMIN_SYNC_ROLE
B. SYNC_ADMIN_ROLE
C. ADMIN_CONSOLE_ROLE
D. SYS_CONSOLE_ROLE
Answer: D

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NO.2 Click the Exhibit button.
In the exhibit, what does the attached replication diagram show?
A. All subscriptions are Mirroring Continuous.
B. The subscription FERO_BERW is Inactive.
C. The subscription FERO_BERW is Mirroring Continuous.
D. All subscriptions are using bidirectional Mirroring Continuous.
Answer: C

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NO.3 To administer a HotStandby database you need which privilege?
A. Sys_Sync_Admin_Role
B. Sys_Console_Role
C. Sys_Hotstandby_Role
D. Sys_Replication_Role
Answer: B

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NO.4 It is possible when using solsql to run scripts either interactively or nested within
another script.
Which special character is used to identify that you want to execute a script file?
A. &
B. @
C. #
D. !
Answer: B

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NO.5 How many different installations of solidDB binaries can exist on the same host?
A. one
B. as many as can fit
C. one per release of solidDB
D. one per version of solidDB
Answer: B

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NO.6 What are two possible conflict resolution methods between solidDB and a back-end
database?
(Choose two.)
A. Source wins
B. Reference
C. Trigger
D. UserExit
E. Alert user
Answer: A,D

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NO.7 Which statement regarding IBM solidDB Netbackup is true?
A. One IBM solidDB Netbackup Server can only serve one backup source server.
B. The command ADMIN COMMAND 'netbackup' is supported within the [Srv]At
configuration
parameter.
C. NetBackup copies logical database consisting of multiple files to one flat file to the
NetBackupDirectory by default.
D. If the specified remote directory does not exist, it is not created automatically by the
solidDB
Netbackup Server.
Answer: C

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NO.8 What are two possible reasons for high latency between a solidDB in-memory cache
and a back-end
database? (Choose two.)
A. Insufficient network bandwidth for the volume of transactions that are being processed.
B. The network connection between the solidDB in-memory cache and the back-end
database is
down.
C. There is database lock contention on the target database.
D. The CDC instances are stopped.
E. Table mappings are not configured properly.
Answer: A,C

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Exam Code: 000-019
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NO.1 Refer to the Exhibit.
This process should be defined as a long-running process, because the implementation contains:
A. a Snippet.
B. a Parallel flow.
C. a Wait activity.
D. a Repeat Until Loop activity.
Answer: C

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NO.2 A bank implements a loan processing service, Module A, which invokes services provided by several
other SCA applications. During the integration testing, the developer finds a problem with the Module A.
Since the implementation is very complex, the developer decides to enable cross-component trace to
troubleshoot. Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A. The loan processing service, along with the associated modules have to be deployed onto the same
server.
B. All associated applications must be loaded in the current workspace in order for the cross-component
trace to work.
C. Cross-component trace can be enabled through the Server Logs view in the WebSphere Integration
Developer or from the administrative console.
D. If cross-component trace is enabled with data snapshot, the system captures the data sent in and
passed between SCA components in the WPRCSDB database.
Answer: C

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NO.3 An integration developer is testing a microflow which invokes several external services. This microflow
should take no longer than 30 seconds to complete. During the execution, a transaction timeout exception
was thrown. The developer suspects that one of the external services is taking too long to return the
response. Which of the following methods is the BEST approach to troubleshoot this problem?
A. Use a BPC Explorer to check execution time of the each invocation activity.
B. Use the Tivoli Performance Viewer to check the duration of the service invocation.
C. Examine the SystemOut.log for the associating transaction exception stack-trace.
D. Implement a fault handler in the microflow and collect additional information through the exception
stack-trace.
Answer: C

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NO.4 Refer to the Exhibits.
Exhibit 1 shows the assembly diagram for the HelloWorldProcess module.
Exhibit 2 shows the configuration of the HelloWorldProcess_Test.
Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A. This configuration is set up to test the HelloWorldProcess component in isolation.
B. In order to track the data flow from the HelloWorldProcess to HelloWorldImport, a monitor needs to be
added.
C. Since fine-grained trace is enabled for HelloWorldProcess, the server starts cross-component trace
once the test is invoked.
D. A monitor is defined on the HelloWorldTask and HelloWorldProcess components so that the server will
generate common base events for these components.
E. A monitor is defined on the HelloWorldTask and HelloWorldProcess components so that the server will
generate common base events for these components.
F. A monitor is defined on the HelloWorldTask and HelloWorldProcess components so that the server will
generate common base events for these components.
Answer: B

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NO.5 Refer to the Exhibit.
Assuming some_adapter is a valid JCA adapter, which of the following is TRUE about this configuration?
A. Since SolutionA_Library is referenced by the two solutions, it has to be configured as a shared library.
B. The configuration is incorrect because SolutionA_Library isn't included in the project references of
SolutionB.
C. When exporting SolutionB for server deployment, an EAR file containing 2 JARs, 1 WAR and 1 RAR is
created.
D. When exporting SolutionB for command-line service deployment, a ZIP file containing 2 JARs, 1 WAR
and 1 RAR is created
Answer: C

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NO.6 Refer to the Exhibits.
Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding this configuration?
A. Component1 and Component2 cannot have different implementation types.
B. Compile errors occur because there is no default component configured.
C. If MySelector is invoked on December 25, 2010, a runtime exception will occur.
D. A runtime exception will be thrown if Component2 is implemented as a business rule.
Answer: C

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NO.7 Refer to the Exhibit.
Which of the following statements BEST describes this scenario?
A. The test suite can't be modified.
B. The test suite uses the Default data pool when running the test.
C. The test suite was created using the scenario-based testing pattern.
D. The test suite was created using the operation-level testing pattern.
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which of the following are TRUE regarding Service Component Architecture (SCA)?
A. Standard Java classes are used to store data.
B. Integration developers can concentrate more time on the details of the service implementation.
C. Without SCA, you must change application code to respond to service implementation changes.
D. SCA provides a single service component abstraction for services that may already be implemented as
business processes.
E. The service component definition is included in a file called <SERVICE_NAME>.SCDL that can have
zero or more interfaces associated with it.
Answer: C,D

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Exam Code: C2140-842
Exam Name: Rational Functional Tester for Java
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Exam Code: C4090-959
Exam Name: Enterprise Storage Sales V3 (C4090-959)
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Exam Code: M2140-648
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NO.1 What can you use to select an object as a verification point?
A.the object finder, the object picker, or the object browser
B.the main object browser, the test object browser, or the extra object browser
C.the object finder, the test object browser, or the delay method
D.the delay method, the scripting method, or the pointer method
Correct:C

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NO.2 How do you start the application under test?
A.use the Windows Start menu
B.simply begin recording
C.open a command line and start the application by typing its name
D.click the Start Application button on the recording toolbar
Correct:D

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NO.3 What can be tested when recording a verification point?
A.an objects data only
B.an objects data or properties only
C.whether or not the object is working
D.an objects data, properties, or existence
Correct:D

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NO.4 Functional Tester allows you to import an external datapool from which of the following
?
(Choose three.)
A.an external .csv file
B.another Functional Tester datapool
C.an existing TestManager datapool
D.an access (.mdb) file
Correct:A B C

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NO.5 You must _____ a script with a datapool before substituting literal values in the script
with
references to datapool variables.
A.share
B.associate
C.run
D.disassociate
Correct:B

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NO.6 While recording a script, the recording monitor _____.
A.appears at the conclusion of recording
B.is only displayed on the toolbar
C.does not appear
D.displays a message for each action
Correct:D

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NO.7 Which three actions are possible with RFT? (Choose three.)
A.use a wizard to substitute literals with datapool variables
B.substitute literals in verification points with datapool variables
C.create a datapool while recording a data-driven script
D.create scripts in c#
Correct:A B C

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NO.8 A recording is started by:
A.Entering script_record on the command line
B.creating a script and then pressing the record button in the RFT application
C.starting the application under test
D.Starting RFT
Correct:B

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NO.1 Which properties can be adjusted in the files of the directory /etc/default? (Select four.)
A. time zone
B. new user properties
C. volume manager properties
D. IP addresses for the network interfaces
E. password format policy
F. configuration of the ip_forwarding parameter
G. default kernel parameters
H. maximum sys log size
Answer: ABEH

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NO.2 Which file do you edit in order to change the behavior of the syslogd daemon?
A. /etc/syslogd.conf file
B. /etc/syslog.conf file
C. /etc/rc.config.d/syslogd.conf file
D. /var/adm/syslog.conf file
Answer: B

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NO.3 Management purchases an Integrity Superdome to replace two HP rp8420 Servers. There is available
CPU capacity and management decides to bring additional applications for execution on the Integrity
Superdome. Based on this scenario, which statements can be true? (Select two.)
A. Some of the applications are Linux-based and Linux applications are not supported to run on an
Integrity Superdome.
B. Some of the applications are Linux-based and Linux applications will run in an HP Integrity Virtual
Machine on an Integrity Superdome.
C. Some of the applications are Windows-based that run alongside HP-UX applications in a different
vPar inside of an Integrity Superdome.
D. Some of the applications are Windows-based that run alongside HP-UX applications in a different
nPar inside of an Integrity Superdome.
Answer: BD

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NO.4 Which command should you use to determine the status of a LUN path?
A. ioscan
B. scsimgr
C. olrad
D. rad
Answer: A

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NO.5 What are the key benefits of the 11i v3 Mass Storage Stack? (Select two.)
A. improved security capabilities
B. dramatic I/O performance improvements
C. improved PVLinks for multipathing
D. simplified management and automatic configuration
Answer: BD

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NO.6 Your /home file system mounted on /dev/vg01/lvol4 is running out of space. Which command
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A. du -k /dev/vg01/lvol4
B. du -ak /home
C. du -as /home
D. du -a /dev/vg01/lvol4
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which kernel parameter defines the maximum amount of physical memory that can be used for
caching file I/O data?
A. bufpages
B. filecache_max
C. dbc_max_pct
D. nbuf
Answer: B

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NO.8 You have set up a Service guard cluster but received notification from network security that the
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A. /etc/hosts.equiv
B. /etc/cmcluster/cmclconfig
C. $HOME/.rhosts
D. /etc/cmcluster/cmclnodelist
Answer: D

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