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Exam Name: IBM WebSphere Message Broker v6.1, Solution Development
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NO.1 A developer who is very familiar with writing XPath expressions in the mapping editor has been asked
to convert several of the company's current message flows. The message flows use mappings to do
message transformation to message flows which use Java to do transformations. Which method call
should be used to help the developer more quickly write code to access messages?
A.callXPath
B.processXPath
C.mappingXPath
D.evaluateXPath
Answer: D

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NO.2 To meet business requirements, a message flow was developed to route activities based upon the
account identifier which contains the value 'Wealth Management'. The flow was developed using a Route
node. Given the filter expressions that have been configured in this node, multiple expressions may be
matched for any particular message. Which configurable property of the Route node would control
whether only one or all matching expressions are satisfied?
AFilters
B.Operator
C.Distribution mode
D.Match dynamic terminal
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which node is used to retrieve the WSDL port from WebSphere Service Registry and Repository that
could be used by a message flow to dynamically set the output destination?
A.SOAPRequest
B.HTTPRequest
C.RegistryLookup
D.EndpointLookup
Answer: D

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NO.4 A Message Broker V6.1 developer receives a request to authenticate and authorize Web service
requests to a message flow with username and password provided as WS-Security username tokens
against a Microsoft Active Directory. Which action must be performed by the developer to fulfill this
request?
A.Set the Use HTTPS property of the SOAPInput node.
B.Add a username token in the WS-Security table of the SOAPInput node.
C.Add a username and a password as user-defined SOAP headers of the SOAPInput node.
D.Nothing, the Message Broker administrator that deploys the message associates the right security
profile.
Answer: D

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NO.5 A Message Broker V6.1 developer is implementing a message flow with an JMSInput node,
JavaCompute node and a JMSReply node. The logic in the JavaCompute node inserts a record to a
database table using a JDBC Type 4 connection. Which three tasks have to be performed to ensure that
the JMS, the database and the JMS transactions are synchronized?
A.Create the JDBC connection using an XADataSource.
B.Set the Transaction mode of the JMSInput and JMSReply nodes to Local.
C.Set the Transaction mode of the JMSInput and JMSReply nodes to Global.
D.Set the Backout destination of the JMSInput node to hold In-doubt transactions.
E.Use the broker Java API getJDBCType4Connection to initiate the JDBC connection.
F.Configure a XAResourceManager for both the JDBC and JMS connections in the broker's queue
manager.
Answer: C E F

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NO.6 Which component is the contract that describes to the Message Broker V6.1 developer how to build a
Web service request?
A.WSDL
B.Namespace
C.HTTP Header
D.SOAP Envelope
Answer: A

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NO.7 A Message Broker V6.1 developer needs to put an HTTP input message onto an MQ queue for
downstream processing. After clearing the HTTP headers, what is the simplest way to build an MQMD?
A.Write ESQL code to construct an MQMD.
B.Let the MQOutput node build a default MQMD.
C.Use the SOAPExtract node to build an MQMD.
D.Use the ResetContentDescriptor node to build an MQMD.
Answer: B

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NO.8 There is a requirement to integrate Message Broker V6.1 with a messaging system that conforms to
Java Message Service Specification V1.1. Which messaging transport should be used for integration
purposes?
A.MQ Mobile
B.Broker JMS
C.We Services
D.MQ Enterprise
Answer: B

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Exam Code: C2020-001
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NO.1 Youare logged into the OpenPages platform with full administrative privileges.
You want to add a brand new field in the application so that a specific end user can see the new
field in the application when they log in.
Which two views under the Administration menu would you access? (Choose two.)
A. Object Resets
B. Field Groups
C. Profiles
D. Application Text
Answer: B,C

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NO.2 Using OpenPages, you want to define triggers to perform actions. What are three scenarios
where you would do this? (Choose three.)
A. Creating an Object
B. Creating an Object type
C. Associating Objects
D. Copying Objects
E. Creating a user
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.3 You want to use a filtered list view to build dynamic lists which are displayed in a user's
homepage. Which type offilter would be used?
A. My Filter
B. Public Filter
C. Quick Filter
D. Advanced Filter
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which three behaviors are supported by dependent fields? (Choose three.)
A. Required
B. Disabled
C. Editable
D. Visible
E. Locked
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.5 Click the Exhibit button.
Referring to the exhibit, what is the correct Folder Path column value required so that the Boston
entity will be imported through FastMap?
A. /NorthAmerica/Mexico/United States/Canada
B. North America/United States/
C. United States/Cleveland/Boston
D. /North America/United States/Boston
Answer: D

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NO.6 What must you do before entering information about the user, user account, and creating the
new OpenPages user?
A. Assign the user at least one profile.
B. Select the group to which the user will belong.
C. Assign the user at least one role.
D. Ensure that the organizationstructure has been finalized.
Answer: B

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NO.7 What are the three basic components of the IBM OpenPages platform? (Choose three.)
A. Application server
B. Database server
C. Authentication server
D. E-mail server
E. Cognos Business Intelligence server
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.8 Which part do role assignments play in security?
A. Pole Assignments provide the capability for users to use profiles and role templates together.
B. Pole Assignments provide the capability to define read, write, associate and delete access to
object types.
C. Pole Assignments provide the capability to control field behavior in the system based on role
template.
D. Pole Assignments provide the capability to control user and group access to objects.
Answer: D

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9. You are running the FastMap data load utility to import a template containing a set ofdata that
contains some validation errors.
What will EastMap do next?
A. FastMap will attempt to partial' import the correct data and report the errors of the data that
could not be loaded.
B. FastMap will use a fail-fast approach by stopping on thefirst validation error and reporting it
before continuing.
C. EastMap validates the entire workbook being imported and reports all validation errors found
and allows a corrected workbook to be imported to restart the process.
D. EastMap auto-corrects validation errors by using smart-defaults to correct values for any error.
Answer: C

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10. You need to configure views to help younavigate through the object hierarchy. Which two
views would you configure? (Choose two.)
A. Folder
B. List
C. Context
D. Overview
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Exam Code: C2020-700
Exam Name: IBM Cognos 10 Planning Application
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Exam Code: C2090-304
Exam Name: IBM InfoSphere QualityStage v9.1 Solution Developer
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NO.1 In order to accomplish Word Investigation in a single QualityStage job, how many investigate
stages would be required for the following fields:
PREFIX, FIRST_NAME, LAST_NAME. SUFFIX. ADDRESSJI. ADDRESS_2, ADDRESS_3, CITY , STATE.
andZIPCODE?
A. Ten.
B. Five.
C. Three.
D. Seven.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Once changes are introduced in a Rules Set, which option confirms the new rules set works
properly with your data?
A. Run the Rules Tester.
B. Have users check manually.
C. Check the Unhandled tokens.
D. Run the job again and confirm results.
Answer: D

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NO.3 What two rule groups are needed for rule sets?
A. A rule group for rules that you want to apply to split a domain.
B. A rule group for rules that you want to apply to records after all other actions.
C. A rule group for rules that you want to apply to records before all other actions.
D. A rule group for rules that you want to apply to records as they read a lookup table.
E. A rule group for rules that you want to apply copies of records before all other actions.
Answer: C,D

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NO.4 Which two elements are part of a lookup table in Standardization Rules Designer?
A. Input Value
B. Returned Value
C. Exception Value
D. Unhandled Token
E. Classification Token
Answer: A,D

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NO.5 Customer data is being processed in a single file. Among the fields present for matching are
national identity number and birth date, both of which are inconsistently populated.
Which match type should be used to match this data?
A. One-source Ranged
B. One-source Cognitive
C. One-source Transitive
D. One-source Dependent
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which statement describe the benefits of parsing data?
A. Optimized database loading.
B. Application of phonetic codings.
C. Access to individual data tokens.
D. Pre-processing of country specific data.
Answer: A

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NO.7 What rule file parses data to the output file?
A. PAT
B. CLS
C. DCT
D. PRS
Answer: D

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NO.8 What will improve classifications if there are a large amount of "@" and "?" symbols in a
standardization pattern report?
A. Word with Advanced options.
B. Word with special symbol processing options.
C. Character Discrete on all unhandled patterns.
D. Character Concatenate on selected columns.
Answer: A

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Exam Code: C2180-377
Exam Name: IBM WebSphere Application Server Network Deployment V7.0, Core Administration
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NO.1 When configuring automated transaction peer recovery for recovering in-flight
transactions from the
transaction log, what is required from the file system?
A.RAID disks must be used to host the transaction log
B.Exclusive read only file locks and the ability to invalidate them
C.File locking must be disabled for Network File System Version 4 (NFSv4)
D.Lease-based exclusive locks on files
ANSWER: D

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NO.2 What is the sequence of components which would typically be involved in the flow of a
request from a
Web browser to a servlet?
A.External HTTP Server, HTTP Server Plug-in and EJB Container
B.Load Balancer, Embedded HTTP Server, HTTP Server Plug-in and Web Container
C.Edge Component, HTTP Server Plug-in, external HTTP Server, and Web Container
D.External HTTP Server, HTTP Server Plug-in, embedded HTTP Server and Web Container
ANSWER: D

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NO.3 When backing up WebSphere Application Server configuration and runtime settings,
which of the
following commands would be relevant?
A.backupConfig -location location
B.restoreConfig -profileName profile_name -backupFile backupFile_name
C.manageprofiles -backupProfile -profileName profile_name -backupFile backupFile_name
D.wsadmin -backupConfig -profileName profile_name -backupFile backupFile_name
ANSWER: C

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NO.4 What can the system administrator do to distribute incoming HTTP traffic across a
farm of Web servers?
A.Enable server affinity for each HTTP server in the cluster
B.Implement the Tivoli Access Manager as a load balancer
C.Implement the caching proxy server component of the Edge Components
D.Use the Load Balancer component of the Edge Components
ANSWER: D

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NO.5 Which of the following options is NOT a valid method of running the Profile
Management Tool?
A.Run the command directly from a system console.
B.Select Profile Management Tool from the First Steps application.
C.Select System Administration -> Run Profile Management Tool in the administrative
console.
D.Check the Create a new WebSphere Application Server profile using the Profile
Management Tool
option at the end of the installation process.
ANSWER: C

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NO.6 Why does IBM WebSphere Application Server Network Deployment utilize node
groups to implement
a distributed environment? To:
A.segment multiple security domains within a WebSphere cell.
B.define the logical grouping of application servers to scale horizontally or vertically.
C.enable mixed nodes with different capabilities within the same cell for administration
purposes.
D.allow application servers having the same applications installed to be grouped logically for
workload
management.
ANSWER: C

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NO.7 What is the most common role that naming plays in WebSphere Application Server?
A.Allows applications to obtain references to objects such as EJB homes.
B.Allows Java programs (clients and Java EE applications) to create, send, receive, and read
asynchronous requests, as messages.
C.Provides a runtime environment for enterprise beans within the application server.
D.Provides a secure facility to support customer's basic organizational entity management
needs.
ANSWER: A

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NO.8 A system administrator has successfully installed WebSphere Application Server V7.0
and has run
the Installation Verification Tool (IVT) with a success message. Which additional step can be
taken to
further verify the installation?
A.Check to see if the InstallShield application will run again.
B Check to see if the installation directory specified exists in the file system.
CUse a browser to access the launch page of the IBM HTTP Server.
D.Use a browser to access the administrative console and log in successfully.
ANSWER: D

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NO.1 There are many benefits derived from Emptoris Sourcing.
Which is not one?
A. Enforce compliance to standard process
B. Actively monitor supplier risk
C. Increase Adoption with RFx Wizards and Templates
D. Analyze "Non-Price" Factors to award suppliers
Answer: A

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Reference:http://www-304.ibm.com/industries/publicsector/fileserve?contentid=243307

NO.2 From the selection list below, which option best describes why a customer would purchase the
Spend Analysis solution?
A. Manage "at risk" suppliers
B. Move contracts through faster to win more deals
C. To bring more spend under management
D. Guarantee more "on-time" delivery from suppliers
Answer: C

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NO.3 Who is not a main stream competitor?
A. SAP
B. Upside
C. Ariba
D. Hiperos
Answer: D

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Reference:http://blogs.forrester.com/andrew_bartels/11-12-15ibms_acquisition_of_emptoris_mov
es_it_squarely_into_the_epurchasing_software_market _watch_out_for_f

NO.4 A customer would NOT use Contract Management to become best in class via:
A. Obligation control
B. Contract Authoring
C. Gaining Contract Visibility
D. Running eAuctions
Answer: D

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NO.5 Below are example of Emptoris business drivers in the healthcare industry. Which one does
not apply?
A. A New CPO has been chartered by the CEO/COO to drive down operating costs
B. Successful usage of contract management for managing provider contracts
C. Pressure to reduce operating and medical costs while maintaining standards of care
D. Face-to-face channels where the customer interacts directly with agents who are able to
communicate with the portal electronically
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which of the following does not qualify as a prospect?
A. Annual budget for software is $50k
B. Number of mobile devices is greater than 1,000
C. Customer is currently considering Ariba, Bravo, CombineNet, lasta
D. Annual spend with the suppliers is greater than $400m
Answer: D

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NO.7 In cases where a prospect has multiple instances of ERP systems, Emptoris' Spend Analysis
value proposition most accurately reflects:
A. Ability to pull these sources together, cleansing the data and providing a single common view of a
process.
B. Provide a document management approach as opposed to a continuous synchronization of the
document with the data base
C. A proven track record of capturing savings in categories such as ingredients, raw materials,
assemblies, transportation, IT, facilities.
D. Segment the supplier base across multiple categories, geographies, and business units to manage
performance and evaluate capabilities at a local or global dimension.
Answer: A

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NO.1 What added benefit is there to the IBM Worklight Mobile Platform compared to in-house
mobile
development?
A. IBM Worklight provides a middleware services layer.
B. IBM Worklight provides Optimization capabilities.
C. IBM Worklight provides multiple features to address enterprise security requirements.
D. All of the above
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which customer scenario represents the most ideal prospect for IBM Worklight Platform?
A. The customer that wants a pure native application and is looking to their digital design agency,
that built their ecommerce website, to now build their mobile application
B. The customer that is looking for a solution to help build mobile hybrid applications in house by
their web development team
C. The customer that believes they do not need a presence on commercial App Stores and just
wants a server side mobile web experience for their customers
D. The customer that is looking for a simple single app for a single device for its internal
employees
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which scenario is NOT a strong use cases for IBM Worklight?
A. A bank looking to deploy one application for millions of customers
B. A global financial organization who wants to deploy 10 applications for different lines of
business
C. A technical conglomerate that wants to build 50 applications but has tight control over their
branding and security processes
D. A company that wants to support legacy rugged Windows CE/ 6.5 devices
Answer: D

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a
fully native mobile application?
A. Pro - limited user experience / Con - short development cycles
B. Pro - engaging user experience / Con - inefficient and costly development for multiple devices
C. Pro - simple development effort / Con - applications are more secure
D. All of the above.
Answer: B

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Mobile Devices?
A. An integrated security and compliance picture for all devices.
B. Integration with related IT systems such as asset management, service desk, and security
intelligence.
C. A unique, highly scalable architecture that allows instant delivery of new capabilities.
D. All of the above
Answer: A

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A. Companies want their employees to use issued devices so budget is not wasted.
B. IT is expected to support personal devices and their access to sensitive back-end systems.
C. HR wants to avoid employees bringing status symbols to work.
D. Companies don't want employees using social applications at work.
Answer: B

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A. An eco-friendly application that runs on electrical power and is overpriced for its value
B. An application that is developed by two separate teams integrating server-side and client-side
assets respectively
C. An application that is developed using both native and web-based coding languages
D. A mobile web application developed using JavaScript
Answer: C

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A. Simple and rapid Cloud application integration projects
B. Connecting Cloud and On Premise applications
C. Data migration and Data Synchronization
D. All of the above
Answer: B

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C. Custom code does not provide visibility into what is working or broken.
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NO.5 IBM Endpoint Manager (IEM) provides:
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D. All of the above
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NO.1 A customer with an existing TS3100 tape library has a need to add an additional LTO6 half
height drive. They have existing LTO4 tapes.
Choose the appropriate access level that the LTO6 will provide them.
A. The customer will be able to write to the LTO4 but unable to read
B. The customer will be able to write and read from LTO4 media
C. The customer will be able to read and will be unable to write to the LTO4 media
D. The customer will be unable to access LTO4 media
Answer: C

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NO.2 A customer has the following requirements, 24TB raw capacity. Which IBM storage system
could best fulfill the requirements?
A. Storwize V3700
B. Storwize V7000
C. Flex System V7000
D. SVC CG8
Answer: A

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NO.3 A customer is interested in a Storage solution that can offer compression. What advantage
would the Storwize V7000 offer?
A. Real Time Compression
B. Post Process Compression
C. Host Based Compression
D. Hash Based Deduplication
Answer: A

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Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
https://www304.ibm.com/partnerworld/wps/servlet/ContentHandler/stg_ast_sto_wp_v7000_real_
time_compre ssion

NO.4 Through analysis of a customer environment it has been determined that they need to add
about 8TB of Tier 0 Storage. The customer is also planning to add 10 TB of space with Storwize
V7000.
What is the best option of adding the Tier 0 space?
A. Add SSDs to the Storwize V7000 configuration.
B. Externally visualize a Flash System 820 with the Storwize V7000
C. Add an additional Storwize V7000 with SSDs and cluster together.
D. Externally virtualize a Storwize V3700 with SSDs included in the system
Answer: A

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NO.5 What is a feature of the Storwize V7000 that is not available in the StorwizeV3700?
A. Thin Provisioning
B. Real Time Compression
C. Flash Copy
D. Storage Migration
Answer: B

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Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
https://www.ibm.com/developerworks/community/blogs/storage_redbooks/entry/comparison_of_
st orwize_v3700_v5000_v7000_on_one_page?lang=en

NO.6 A customer is running a different host protocols in their data center. What host protocols can
be connected to the Storwize V7000, if the customer wants to gain benefits from the embedded
Real Time Compression function?
A. FCoe and FCP
B. iSCSI, FCoe and FCp
C. FCP and Ethernet
D. SAS, FCP and FCoE
Answer: D

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NO.7 A customer needs a storage solution for archiving his CCTV (closed circuit television)
workload.
What is the best cost performance optimized solution?
A. IBM Storwize V3700 with SSD only
B. IBM Storwize V3700 with 10K rpm drives and SSD
C. IBM Storwize V3700 with 15Krpm drives
D. IBM Storwize V3700 with turbo feature and NL-SaS drives
Answer: B

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Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
http://public.dhe.ibm.com/common/ssi/ecm/en/tsd03157usen/TSD03157USEN.PDF

NO.8 The sales specialist is recommending a TCS7620 to achieve greater efficiency with the current
environment. Which problem will this address?
A. The backup window
B. The need to send tapes off site
C. The performance of their primary applications
D. The need to purchase additional primary storage
Answer: A

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NO.1 A sales representative is meeting with the CFO of a retailer to explain the current
proposal for a new
POS system. The CFO asks the RSS representative to be prepared to justify why this project
should be
funded ahead of other projects under consideration. Which two actions should the RSS
representative
take to be best prepared for this discussion? (Choose two.)
A. review the ROI
B. Google the CFO's background
C. review the business value drivers
D. understand the CFO's relationship with IBM
Answer: A,C

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NO.2 What are two Internet-based resources a sales representative may use to identify POS
competitors in a
customer account? (Choose two.)
A. competitors' Web sites
B. Hoover's POS Competition Web site
C. Securities and Exchange (SEC) filings
D. IBM Retail Store Solution product Web site
Answer: A,C

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NO.3 What are two technical resources that sellers may use to help sell IBM retail solutions?
(Choose two.)
A. IBM Retail Store SolutionsTechLine
B. IBM Client Reference Materials Database
C. IBM Retail Store Solutions sales education Web site
D. IBM Retail Store Solutions technical education Web site
Answer: A,D

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NO.4 A food service retailer is interested in the SurePOS 500 for their ten stores. Each store
has two registers.
What is the best resource to handle this customer's needs?
A. RSS ISV
B. RSS Reseller
C. IBM GBS representative
D. Retail Store Solutions (RSS) sales representative
Answer: B

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NO.5 A customer wants to deploy a new cashier fraud loss prevention solution. What is the
business value
of this solution?
A. reduces customer theft
B. reduces front-end shrink
C. improves inventory accuracy
D. improves cashier productivity
Answer: B

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NO.6 A food service retailer is interested in the SurePOS 500 for their 500 stores. Each store
has five
registers. Which two resources can handle this customer's needs? (Choose two.)
A. RSS ISV
B. RSS reseller
C. IBM GBS representative
D. Retail Store Solutions (RSS) sales representative
Answer: B,D

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NO.7 A Retail Store Solutions Sales Representative is staffing a booth at a trade show. Other
than business
cards, what is the most important information the Sales Representative should gather from
each visitor?
A. area of interest
B. most used retail vendor
C. retail budget projections
D. number of lanes per store
E. retail revenue projections
Answer: A

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NO.8 What are two weaknesses of Micros? (Choose two.)
A. proprietary solutions
B. no fans in some models
C. reliance on infraredtouchscreens
D. 10/100 Ethernet LAN slowing network connectivity
Answer: A,B

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Exam Code: C2140-834
Exam Name: Object Oriented Analysis and Design-Part2(Design)
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Exam Code: C2040-405
Exam Name: IBM Notes and Domino 9.0 Social Edition System Administration Update
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NO.1 Which document is used to configure IBM Docs integration with IBM Domino?
A. Server document
B. Person document
C. Server Configuration document
D. Mail Policy Settings document
Answer: D

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NO.2 Nancy is configuring an internet site document for federated login, but when she clicks on the
IdP Catalog button to select an IdP Configuration document, she cannot open the IdP Catalog
application. What could be the cause of this problem?
A. Nancy does not have access rights to the IdP Catalog Application.
B. The Open Social Component is not installed on her IBM Notes client.
C. Nancy does not have rights to run unrestricted agents on the IBM Domino server.
D. Nancy's Workstation ECL does not recognize the signer of the IdP Catalog Application.
Answer: A

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NO.3 Jan wants to create a Program document in order to run the new Database Maintenance Tool
(dbmt) for mail files on the IBM Domino server. What are two adjustments that Jan must make to
the server's notes.ini file before creating the Program document? (Choose two.)
A. Remove Updall from the Server Tasks lines in the notes.ini.
B. Set MailFileDisableCompactAbort=1 to temporarily stop the delivery of mail.
C. Set DBMT_FILTER=names.nsf to ensure the Domino Directory is not compacted.
D. Set dbmt-updallThreads=0 to have the Database Maintenance Tool skip operations performed by
Updall.
E. Set dbmt_stdr85mail=$Inbox,$Drafts,$All to ensure key views in mail databases that use the
StdR85Mail template are built.
Answer: A,B

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NO.4 An IBM Notes user kills the Notes client while its still busy waiting for input, and this results in
a new record in the Fault Reports database.
How will this type of crash be categorized in the version 9.0 By Disposition view?
A. Problem category
B. Informational category
C. Possible Problem (possibly actionable) category
D. Possible Problem (likely NOT actionable) category
Answer: C

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NO.5 Bill's users are complaining they want to have certain calendar entries more prominent in the
calendar view. How can Bill's users customize calendar entries to make certain entries more visible?
A. The user can assign a calendar entry to Important Meeting view.
B. The user can utilize the Add Highlight Color action from the Calendar Action bar.
C. The user can choose to add the importance flag to a calendar entry upon creation.
D. The user can use the "Color-code calendar entries by category" feature to highlight select
calendar entries.
Answer: D

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NO.6 What tool is used to configure Tivoli Federated Identity Manager as the identity provider for
IBM Domino?
A. notes.ini file
B. IBM Notes client
C. Domino Web Administrator
D. Integrated Solutions Console
Answer: D

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NO.7 How can an IBM Domino administrator set all new personal contacts created by users to be
private by default?
A. In the mail policy settings document, enable "Create new contacts as private by default".
B. In the desktop policy settings document, enable "Mark new contacts as private by default".
C. In the security policy settings document, enable "Create new contacts as private by default".
D. In the Server configuration document, in the iNotes settings, enable "Mark new contacts as
private by default".
Answer: B

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NO.8 If both the IBM iNotes and IBM Notes clients are being used, what should the "Session
authentication" field be set to in the Server document > Internet Protocols > Domino Web Engine
tab on the IBM Domino server running Shindig?
A. none
B. Disabled
C. Single Server
D. Multiple Servers (SSO)
Answer: D

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Exam Code: C2170-051
Exam Name: IBM i2 Analyst Notebook V8.9
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Exam Code: C2090-461
Exam Name: IBM InfoSphere Optim for Distributed Systems v9.1
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NO.1 When the Optim Server is hosted in a Linux or UNIX environment, what are two ways to
enable extended Optim tracing.
A. Using PROSVCE Command.
B. Using Optim Configuration Program.
C. Using the Optim configuration file-pstlocal.cfg.
D. Using the Optim configuration file-pstconfig.cfg.
E. Using the Optim environmental scripts - RTSETENV.
Answer: A,C

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NO.2 What type of install is NOT available for Optim?
A. Silent
B. Console
C. Linux RPM
D. Launchpad
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which statement describes the what is occurring, why and how?
A. command file syntax, to execute legal hold, using prOcmnd /FMF
B. override file syntax, to process a compare, using prOcmnd /COMPARE
C. command file syntax, to execute an archive file split, using prOcmnd /FMF
D. command file syntax, to execute an archive file split, using prOcmnd /ARCMAINT
Answer: A

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NO.4 How is the command line syntax /PSSIMPORT used?
A. A command line argument for the File Maintenance Facility to assign imported storage profiles to
existing archive files.
B. A command line argument for the File Maintenance Facility to imported storage profiles
generated by other applications.
C. A PROCMND command that imports storage profiles generated by other applications and creates
them in the Optim directory.
D. A PROCMND command that imports storage profiles generated by other applications and assigns
them to archive files in the Optim directory.
Answer: B

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NO.5 Optim Designer should be used for all of which processes?
A. Defining DBAIiases. Optim Data Sources and ODM Collections.
B. Viewing zOS job output, masking policies and relationship definitions.
C. Testing Optim Archive Access Definitions. Services and ODM Collections
D. Creating and testing TDM Access Definitions. Column Maps and Convert Services.
Answer: D

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NO.6 When using an ODPP function within an Optim Lua script, it is necessary to use which keyword
as part of the calltoODPP?
A. optimodpp
B. optimmask
C. odppmask
D. maskodpp
Answer: D

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NO.7 What two services need to be running for Optim Search to be configured?
A. WASCE
B. IIS Server
C. Optim Server
D. Optim Manager
E. Optim Connect Daemon
Answer: D,E

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NO.8 The Optim directory is NOT supported on which database?
A. Oracle
B. Teradata
C. DB2 LUW
D. Microsoft SQL Server
Answer: A

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Exam Name: Assessment: IBM Notes and Domino Fundamentals
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Exam Code: C2010-654
Exam Name: IBM Tivoli Application Dependency Discovery Manager V7.2.1.3 Implementation
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NO.1 Robin is developing an XPage application, but she mistakenly closed the Controls and Data
views
in IBM Domino Designer. How can Robin reopen these views?
A. From the Window menu, select XPages under the 'Open Perspective' submenu.
B. Enable the 'XPages views' option on the XPage tab of the Application Properties.
C. In the Domino Designer Preferences on the XPage section, check the Controls and Data view
options.
D. In the Application Navigator, right-click on the XPage application and enable the Controls and
Data view options.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Mary Beth and Kathleen work in the same department. From time to time, they need to see
what
the other one is doing when they show as 'busy' in their calendar. What minimum level of
delegation would Mary Beth need to give Kathleen so that Kathleen can view calendar entries?
A. Automatic forwarding
B. Read, create, edit and delete for Mail
C. Read access for Calendar, To Do and Contacts
D. Read access to Mail, Calendar, To Do and Contacts
Answer: C

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6. James has enabled the Recipients Icons option and notices that no icon is displayed for a
message. Why would no icon be displayed for a message where he is the recipient?
A. James is in the BCC field. When the recipient is in the BCC field, no icon is displayed.
B. The message was sent using an alias name. Messages using an alias do not reflect an icon.
C. James is in the CC field. Only messages where the user is in the To field will reflect the icon.
D. James is also the sender. Messages where the recipient is also the sender do not reflect an
icon.
Answer: A

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7. Max has an application that her company's Chicago office uses on their Chicago server. She
would like her company's Boston office to access the same application on their Boston server but
needs for changes to each application to be kept in sync. How should Max create the application
on the Boston server?
A. Max should create a new copy of the application on the Boston server.
B. Max should create a new replica of the application on the Boston server.
C. Max should create a new application based off the template on the Boston server.
D. Max should create a new application based off the Single Copy Template on the Boston server.
Answer: B

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8. If a valid mail rule action does not work, which action type may have been disabled by the
system
administrator?
A. send copy to
B. copy to folder
C. delete message
D. change importance to
Answer: A

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9. Which of the following statements describes the IBM Domino Roaming Server?
A. The Domino Roaming Server is always a mail server.
B. The Domino Roaming Server is always an application server.
C. The Domino Roaming Server is always the home mail server.
D. The Domino Roaming Server can be, but is not always, the home or mail server.
Answer: D

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10. If a mobile device is lost or stolen, an administrator can issue a remote wipe command to
remove
all sensitive data from the device. What application would the administrator use to perform the
action?
A. Traveler.nsf
B. TravConf.nsf
C. IBM Notes Traveler Remote Administrator
D. IBM Domino Administrator client
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which server feature is responsible for name changes and database ACL updates?
A. Name Change Process
B. Replication
C. Extended ACL
D. Administration Process
Answer: D

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NO.4 How does an IBM Domino server determine which documents to replicate for an application?
A. Only those documents marked for replication by the user are replicated.
B. The Domino server checks each document for the "$Has_Replicated" field.
C. The Domino server checks replication history and replicates only those documents that have
changed since the last replication.
D. The LastUpdated property of the application is checked. The Domino server replicates only
those documents added since the LastUpdatedtime.
Answer: C

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NO.5 In order for AdminP to work properly, what must every IBM Domino database have?
A. an AdminP certifier
B. an AdminP xACL entry
C. an AdminP retry interval
D. an Administration server
Answer: D

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