2014年7月31日星期四

C2040-440 Real Exams, A2040-440 Practice Exam

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C2040-440Exam Code: C2040-440
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A2040-440Exam Code: A2040-440
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NO.1 Virtual Member Manager (VMM) is configured to leverage an LDAP server's membership
attribute.The
LDAP server's membership attribute includes direct groups only. Access to IBM WebSphere Portal
resources has been assigned based on nested group membership. What configuration options
should be
changed or verified?
A.Change VMM membership attribute to scope "all".
B.Change VMM membership attribute to scope "nested".
C.Leave VMM membership attribute as scope "direct". Enable WebSphere Portal nested groups.
D.Leave VMM membership attribute as scope "direct". Disable WebSphere Portal nested groups.
Answer: C

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NO.2 What special considerations exist for logging out users authenticated by an external security
manager
(ESM)?
A.whether and how to expire the ESM's cookies
B.what role mappings to assign the default login portlet
C.how to clear the authorization context in the ESM's session
D.how to bypass the trust association interceptor during the logout
Answer: A

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NO.3 An administrator creates a page and denies access to anonymous users. The friendly URL for
this page
is /wps/myportal/page1. J2EE authentication is enabled. Which default authentication level could
be
associated with this page such that users who selected "Remember me on this computer" when
logging in
previously will not be prompted for credentials when requesting /wps/myportal/page1?
A.Identified
B.Standard
C.Authorized
D.Authenticated
Answer: A

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5. What is one thing to check when troubleshooting friendly URLs?
A.If a web content viewer is not configured to broadcast links, links rendered by the viewer will
affect the
friendly URL for web content.
B.Support for friendly URLs for web content is only enabled when either of the configuration
properties
friendly.enabled or
friendly.pathinfo.enabled has a value of true in the portal Configuration Service.
C.It does not matter if the target page does not contain a web content viewer that is configured to
receive
links. The content item specified in the
friendly URL for web content will be displayed either way.
D.The portal page specified in the friendly URL for web content must contain a content mapping to
an
existing web content site area.If there is no
content mapping on the page, any web content viewers on the page display a warning message
about the
missing page context.
Answer: D

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NO.4 IBM WebSphere Portal supports which three of the following portlet specifications? (Choose
three.)
A.IBM Portlet API
B.Generic Portlet 1.0
C.Portlet 2.0 (JSR 286)
D.Portlet 1.0 (JSR 168)
E.IBM Web Content Manager Portlet 1.0
F.IBM Web Experience Factory specification 1.5
Answer: A,C,D

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C2150-198Exam Code: C2150-198
Exam Name: IBM Security Access Manager V7.0 Implementation
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C2040-911Exam Code: C2040-911
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C2010-568Exam Code: C2010-568
Exam Name: IBM Tivoli Composite Application Manager for Application Diagnostics V7.1 Implementation
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NO.1 What pdbackup command restores the contents of an Access Manger archived file on a
Windows operating system to a specific folder?
A. pdbackup -a extract
B. pdabckup -a backup
C. pdbackup -a restore
D. pdbackup -a retrieve
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which configuration enables the day time error page?
A. [acnt-mgt] client-alert-tod = yes
B. [acnt-mgt] client-alert-dot = yes
C. [acnt-mgt] client-notify-tod = yes
D. [acnt-mgt] client-notify-dot = yes
Answer: C

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NO.3 What is the correct archive file If pdbackup -a backup -list C:\Program Files\Tivoli\Policy
Director\etc\pdbackup.lst is executed using ISAM on a Windows Server?
A. C:\Program Files\Tivoli\Policy Director\pdbackup\pdbackup.lst_30aug2013.11.30.dar
B. C:\Program Files\Tivoli\Policy Director\pdbackup\pdbackup.lst_30.08.2013.11.30.dar
C. C:\Program Files\Tivoli\Policy Director\pdbackup\pdbackup.lst_30aug2013.11_30.dar
D. C:\Program Files\Tivoli\Policy Director\pdbackup\pdbackup.lst_30.08.2013.11_30.dar
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which registry is NOT supported by ISAM 7?
A. Lotus?Domino?Lotus?Domino
B. IBM?Tivoli?Directory Server
C. Microsoft Active Directory 2008
D. Sun Java?System Directory Server 7
Answer: A

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NO.5 When performing an upgrade, which utility is used to back up the information in Tivoli
Directory Server?
A. ldapadd
B. bulkload
C. idsdb2ldif
D. idscreateldif
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which statement is true for the ISAM appliance snapshot?
A. It is only a backup of the LMI.
B. It is a backup of all WebSEAL instances.
C. It is a copy of the state of the appliance at a certain time.
D. It is a backup of the Policy Server and WebSEAL instances.
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which statement is FALSE regarding local response redirection?
A. We need to use External authentication interface to implement local response redirection.
B. When local response redirection is enabled, change password must be handled by WebSEAL.
C. When using local response redirection, WebSEAL no longer has the responsibility of generating
responses to client requests.
D. When local response redirection is enabled, the redirection is used for all local WebSEAL
response types: login, error, informational, and password management.
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which utility provides backup, restore, and extract capabilities for Security Access Manager
data?
A. pdinfo
B. pdbackup
C. pdservice
D. pd_backup
Answer: B

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A2010-651Exam Code: A2010-651
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C2030-283Exam Code: C2030-283
Exam Name: Foundations of IBM Cloud Computing Architecture V3
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NO.1 Which command copies active backup files from a primary pool to an active data pool?
A.COPY STGPOOL <primary_poolname> <copy_poolname>
B.COPY ACTIVEDATA <primary_poolname> <copy_poolname>
C.COPY STGPOOL <priniary_poolname> <active-data_poolname>
D.COPY ACTIVEDATA <primary_poolname> <active-data_poolname>
Answer: D

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NO.2 If a client system is memory constrained which parameter can be set to improve
performance of
incremental backup?
A.Efficient backup No
B.Memoryefficientbackup No
C.Memoryefficientbackup yes
D.Efficientbackup diskcachemethod
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which concept applies to client-side data deduplication?
A.The client creates a journal file to track redundant files.
B.The client compares the server and client activity log files to determine if the data will be
deduplicated.
C.The IBM Tivoli Storage Manager V6.3 server creates a log file named dedup.log to track redundant
files.
D.The client creates extents which are parts of files that are compared with other file extents to
identify
duplicates.
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which command monitors the amount of active log space used by an IBM Tivoli Storage
Manager V6.3 server?
A.query log
B.query logdir
C.query logfree
D.query logspace
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which command allows a client node to utilize up to eight tape drives?
A.Register node C21 passwd domainsap_c21 maxmp6
B.Register node C21 passwd domain=sap_c21 maxnmp=S
C.Register node C21 passwd domain=sap_c21 maxnummp=8
D.Register node C21 passwd domainsap c21 inaxmount8
Answer: C

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NO.6 Except for defining or deleting storage pools, which privilege class is granted to an
administrator who will manage IBM Tivoli Storage Manager V6.3 databases, storage devices, and
server storage?
A.Server privilege
B.Policy privilege
C.Storage privilege
D.System privilege
Answer: C

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NO.7 How can the activity log for IBM Tivoli Storage Manager V6.3 messages be searched from the
client fornode EPED associated with Session 4?
A.Query actiog orig = ( NODE: 4o
B.Query actiog search = ( FRED: 4
C.Query actiog search = ( SESSI ON: 4
D.Query actiog session = ( CLI ENT: 4
Answer: C

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NO.8 By default, the IBM Tivoli Storage Manager V6.3 (TSM) password expiration for an
administrator or
client node is how many days?
A.30
B.45
C.60
D.90
Answer: D

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P2170-013Exam Code: P2170-013
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C2010-538Exam Code: C2010-538
Exam Name: IBM Tivoli Monitoring V6.2.2 Implementation
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NO.1 What information must be collected in order to plan a Hub Tivoli Enterprise Monitoring Server
in an IBM Tivoli Monitoring V6.2.2 (ITM) implementation?
A. The location of the servers to be monitored.
B. Which applications are running on the monitored servers?
C. The number of servers and applications monitored by ITM.
D. How many users are logged into each of the monitored servers?
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which two pieces of information must be collected in order to select the appropriate
monitoring agent? (Choose two.)
A. The applications to be monitored.
B. The firewalls in the company's network.
C. The size of the data warehouse database.
D. The operating system of the servers to be monitored.
E. The operating system of the Tivoli Enterprise Monitoring Server.
Answer: A,D

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5. According to the IBM Tivoli Monitoring V6.2.2 Installation and Setup Guide, what is the
maximum number of agents that a remote Tivoli Enterprise Monitoring Server (RTEMS) can handle?
A. 500
B. 1500
C. 2500
D. 3500
Answer: B

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6. When planning to deploy a KDE Gateway, which two IBM Tivoli Monitoring components must
be configured to add the KDE Gateway configuration? (Choose two.)
A. Warehouse Proxy Agent
B. Tivoli Enterprise Portal Server
C. Tivoli Enterprise Monitoring Agent
D. Tivoli Enterprise Monitoring Server
E. Summarization and Pruning Agent
Answer: C,D

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7. Which protocol can an agent use to send messages to an event management system when the
agent is running in Autonomous mode?
A. XML
B. SSH
C. SOAP
D. SNMP
Answer: D

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8. An agentless monitoring server is installed with these active agentless monitor instance types
started: 2AIX, 2 Linux, 2 Solaris, 2 Windows.What is the maximum number of systems that can be
monitored?
A. 8
B. 80
C. 800
D. 8000
Answer: C

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9. Which three database products are supported for the Tivoli Data Warehouse database?
(Choose three.)
A. Derby
B. Oracle
C. Sybase
D. MS SQL
E. IBM DB2
F. IBM Informix
Answer: B,D,E

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NO.3 A customer wants fully autonomous monitoring for their operating systems which are based in
a place with these restrictions:
The traditional operating system agents (the knt, klz, and kux agents that monitor the Windows,
Linux, and UNIX operating environments) cannot be used directly.
Which statement is true in order to meet the customer's requirements?
A. IBM Tivoli Monitoring (ITM) will not be the right solution because of the relatively large agent
footprint.
B. ITM will not be the right solution because Java is required for all ITM agents to operate.
C. The traditional ITM operating system agents must be configured for Autonomous Mode.
D. The customer will have to deploy the System Monitor Agents which provide autonomous-only
monitoring for their operating systems.
Answer: D

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NO.4 What are two considerations before installing any IBM Tivoli Monitoring component in an
environment where a single or multiple firewall(s) exist? (Choose two.)
A. Open only one port on the firewall(s).
B. Opening as few ports on the firewall(s) as possible.
C. The existing firewall(s) must be moved and/or uninstalled.
D. Location of components to be installed relation to existing firewall(s).
E. If a single or multiple firewall exists then the KDE gateway must be used.
Answer: B,D

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NO.1 A document needs to be created to show the roles that will be defined when deploying
CCMDB.
What is the primary goal when creating this document?
A.create a list of activities to map to roles
B.create a Work Task Structure of activities
C.identify and map roles to the defined tasks
D.create a Task Breakdown Structure of activities
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which two options are a prerequisite for configuring single sign-on (SSO) so that
users can navigate
between TADDM and CCMDB using SSO? (Choose two.)
A.SSL
B.SSH
C.Kerberos
D.Client-authentication
E.File-based repository
Answer: AD

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NO.3 Which category of individuals are needed to certify the validity of an impact analysis
for a given
CCMDB environment?
A.Subject Matter Experts
B.Environmental Experts
C.Chief Information Officers
D.Human Resources Officers
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which two statements are true about the Common Data Model. (Choose two.)
A.The Common Data Model is based on LDAP.
B.The Discovery Library XML Schema is called IML.
C.The Discovery Library XML Schema is called IdML.
D.The Discovery Library Adapters use SOAP to interface with the Common Data Model.
E.Discovery Library Adapters enable the import and export of data according to the Common
Data Model.
Answer: CE

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NO.5 One of the tasks that must be performed to install CCMDB is to analyze the roles and
responsibilities
of individuals in the project.
Which step must be performed to create a document to map the activities and tasks to
specific roles in a
CCMDB deployment?
A.map roles to the defined tasks
B.define the level of effort for each task
C.define the tasks that will be performed during the project
D.create a Project Plan to outline what steps will be performed
Answer: A

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NO.6 There was a new Change record submitted. One can track progress of change using
attribute called
Progress. Which statement is true regarding tracking progress of change using an attribute
called
Progress?
A.Progress value can be updated only manually by operator.
B.Progress value can be updated by automated task defined in the Job Plan.
C.Progress value cannot be updated manually; it gets updated only by a dedicated workflow.
D.Progress value will be updated only automatically always when Status attribute is changed
for the
Change record.
Answer: B

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NO.7 A customer wants to implement CCMDB to handle the companys IT Change
Requests. The customer
is considering several supported configurations to better reuse the companys existent
middleware.
Which configurations are valid options for the customer?
A.MS SQL Server as the Database Server
MS Active Directory as the LDAP security control
IBM WebSphere Network Deployment as the J2EE container
B.Oracle as the Database Server
MS Active Directory as the LDAP security control
JBoss Application Server as the J2EE container
C.MySQL as the Database Server
Sun Directory Server as the LDAP security control
IBM WebSphere Network Deployment as the J2EE container
D.IBM DB2 as the Database Server
Sun Directory Server as the LDAP security control
WebLogic as the J2EE container
Answer: A

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NO.8 One of the tasks that must be performed to install CCMDB is to analyze the roles and
responsibilities
of individuals in the project.
Which step must be performed to create a document to map the activities and tasks to
specific roles in a
CCMDB deployment?
A.define the level of effort for each task
B.define the roles involved in the process
C.define the tasks that will be performed during the project
D.create a Project Plan to outline what steps will be performed
Answer: B

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A2040-404Exam Code: A2040-404
Exam Name: Developing Enterprise Mobile Applications with IBM Worklight and IBM WebSphere Portal
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C4040-120Exam Code: C4040-120
Exam Name: Associate: IBM i 7.1 Administration
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NO.1 Where is the correct place to define a Responsive Web Design breakpoint, for example
@media screen, in order to handle the different device sizes on the devices browser?
A. on the default.jsp of the portal theme
B. in the JavaScript of the web container of the mobile device
C. only in hybrid mobile applications can breakpoints be defined
D. in the CSS of the theme for the IBM WebSphere Portal server
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which event listener is used in an IBM WebSphere Portal theme to detect if a page is loaded
on a mobile device?
A. isWebView
B. isMobileDevice
C. onDeviceReady
D. onMobileDevice
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which two statements are true regarding the IBM Worklight API? (Choose two.)
A. The Worklight API does not allow a developer to pass data from native to web or web to native.
B. Worklight provides a native API to communicate with the Worklight Server from the native page.
C. The Worklight API only allows a developer to pass data from native to web but not web to native.
D. The Worklight API only allows a developer to pass data from web to native but not native to web.
E. The Worklight API allows navigation to native pages and back, including the passing of data back
and forth.
Answer: B,E

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NO.4 What functionality does the IBM Worklight Server provide when Worklight and IBM
WebSphere Portal are used together?
A. The Worklight Server is not used in the architecture.
B. The Worklight Server provides push notifications for the application.
C. The Worklight Server handles all data connections for the application.
D. The Worklight Server must be installed on the same server as WebSphere Portal.
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which kind of feed does the REST API accept?
A. XML
B. Web
C. RSS
D. Atom
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which API is used to create a REST interface?
A. HTTP
B. JAX-RS
C. JSR 168
D. JSR 286
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which three needs can be met with an IBM Worklight-only application approach? (Choose
three.)
A. offline use
B. app store presence
C. authentication management
D. access to mobile native features
E. use of existing IBM WebSphere Portal environment
F. personalization driven by IBM Web Content Manager content
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.8 Christine has created an IBM Web Experience Factory project and would like to add the
Multichannel Feature Pack for Web Experience Factory 8.0 to her project. How can she accomplish
this?
A. Install the Web Experience Factory 8.0.0.2 Fix Pack.
B. Modify the override.properties file and set the attribute enableMultiChannel="true".
C. Modify the bowstreet.properties file and set the attribute enableMultiChannel="true".
D. Right-click on the Web Experience Factory project and select the Import > Web Experience
Factory Archive command.
Answer: D

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2014年7月30日星期三

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C2180-272Exam Code: C2180-272
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P2180-031Exam Code: P2180-031
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NO.1 Which authenticators are supported out of the box? (Choose three)
A.Header authentication
B.Persistent cookie authentication
C.Form-based authentication
D.Kerberos authentication
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.2 Which of the following is not a client side push API?
A.WL.Client.Push.isPushSupported()
B.WL.Client.Push.isSubscribed()
C.WL.Client.Push.unsubscribe()
D.WL.Client.Push.poll()
Answer: D

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NO.3 When should the Shell development approach be considered?
A.There are only two developers
B.The company wants to create a number of mobile applications sharing a common native code
base and authentication mechanism
C.The company wants to create a native iOS and Android application, but its resources are
limited
D.The company has distributed development teams situated on different continents that must
share the source code
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which OS uses an HTML generated tab-bar?
A.iOS
B.Android
C.Blackberry
D.Windows Phone
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which of these adapter properties is mandatory?
A.adapter name
B.display name
C.description
D.ip address
Answer: A

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NO.6 Once a Shell developer completes developing her Shell components, what is the proper way to
distribute it to inner application developers?
A.Zipping the Worklight project and emailing it to inner application developers
B.Committing the Worklight project to a Source Control Management system and telling inner
application developers to use source code from it
C.The Shell developer should not distribute the Shell component to inner application developers.
They should send their inner applications to her in order to build them
D.Sending the .wlshell Shell bundle file to inner application developers
Answer: D

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NO.7 How can SQL statements can be invoked?
A.Only by using SQL statement query
B.Only by using SQL stored procedure
C.Only by having a separate file with SQL queries
D.Both by using SQL statement query and SQL stored procedures
Answer: D

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NO.8 What is messages.js file used for?
A.This file contains the texts of application pop-up prompts
B.This file contains the texts of error messages that application may show
C.This is an internal framework file.It is used to store system messages for debugging purposes
D.This file contains strings that can be used for application elements
Answer: D

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NO.1 Which of the following will be a valid SOURCE for "InfoSphere Change Data Capture
(CDC) for Oracle
Triggers".?
A. Local Oracle databases running on any supported platform
B. Remote Oracle databases running on any supported platform
C. Both local and remote Oracle databases running on any supported platform
D. Heterogeneous databases running on any supported platform
Answer: A

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NO.2 What happens when a new CDC subscription is created while database logging is
turned off at the
source?
A. The CDC instance cannot be connected
B. The datastore cannot be created or connected
C. The subscription that uses the source datastore cannot be created
D. When the subscription is started using the Management Console, the replication will not
succeed.
Answer: D

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NO.3 What additional software is needed to develop and compile your own Java User Exits
in CDC?
A. Microsoft Visual C++ compiler
B. JDK only
C. Both JRE and JDK
D. No additional software is required
Answer: B

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NO.4 The default port number 10101 assigned to Access Server is ________________.
A. a fixed value pre-assigned by the software that can never be changed
B. a fixed value assigned by users at the time of installing the software
C. automatically assigned based on the license key
D. updatable by editing the Management Console properties
Answer: D

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NO.5 CDC guarantees data integrity by using two-phase commit operation between
____________.
A. source tables and source metadata
B. target tables and target metadata
C. source tables and target Tables
D. source metadata and target metadata
Answer: B

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C2010-574Exam Code: C2010-574
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NO.1 Which of the following represents a good opportunity for IBM Sterling B2B Integrator?
A. An organization seeking secure, process-driven partner integration.
B. An organization seeking to extend their SOA and ESB infrastructures to B2B partners.
C. Customers with multiple data movement patterns and point solutions (silos) needing to
consolidate on a strategic platform.
D. All of the above.
Answer: D

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6. File transfer challenges are commonly seen in which industry?
A. Government
B. Telecommunications
C. Distribution and Logistics
D. Manufacturing
E. All of the above.
Answer: C

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7. IBM Sterling File Gateway is IBM's multi-protocol "_______" communication solution for
secure B2B file exchange.
A. edge
B. cloud
C. internal
D. ESB
Answer: A

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Reference:http://www-01.ibm.com/software/commerce/managed-file-transfer/products/filegatew
ay/(bulleted point #1)
8. Which of the following is NOT a feature of IBM Sterling File Gateway that helps customers
ensure that they are compliant with regulatory requirements?
A. Auditing capabilities.
B. Access controls for file transfer activity.
C. Secure file transfer protocols.
D. Encryption of files both in-flight and at rest.
E. All of the above features help customers ensure that they are compliant with regulatory
requirements.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which of the following IBM/Sterling solutions provides "at rest" data encryption?
A. IBM Sterling Connect:Direct
B. IBM Sterling Secure Proxy
C. IBM Sterling File Gateway
D. IBM Sterling Control Center
E. All of the above.
Answer: C

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Reference:http://www.redbooks.ibm.com/redbooks/pdfs/sg247927.pdf(page 247, Security, 3rd
bulleted point)

NO.3 What can happen when data such as purchase order information is incorrectly re-keyed into
internal business systems and applications?
A. Decrease in inventory costs.
B. Late deliveries & penalties such as charge backs.
C. Increased customer satisfaction & sales.
D. All of the above.
Answer: B

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NO.4 How does IBM Sterling B2B Integrator achieve B2B Process Automation?
A. Using a proprietary scripting language.
B. By means of a visual workflow modeler.
C. Writing new Java code for each process.
D. Through manually routing messages.
Answer: A

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paragraph)

NO.5 According to a study performed by IDC, customers who have implemented IBM Sterling File
Gateway have seen a ______ reduction in labor costs related to troubleshooting edge-based file
transfer activity
A. 65%
B. 50%
C. 38%
D. 90%
Answer: D

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P2020-012Exam Code: P2020-012
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NO.1 How is AIX licensing and upgrade entitlement packaged?
A. AIX SWMA
B. AIX Warranty
C. AIX Service Pack
D. AIX Basic License
Answer: A

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NO.2 How is SuSe Linux Enterprise Server 11 licensed on Power Systems servers?
A. Per core
B. Per server
C. Per socket
D. Per instance
Answer: C

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NO.3 A prospective client is interested in running SAP on Linux. Which of the following would make
Linux on Power a better solution than Linux on x86?
A. ISV support
B. Memory Chipkill
C. Threads per core
D. Kernel optimization
Answer: C

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NO.4 What PowerSCfeature provides a mechanism to prevent an attacker, who has gained
unauthorized access to an LPARI from deleting evidence records of the source of intrusion?
A. Trusted Audit
B. Trusted Firewall
C. Trusted Logging
D. Trusted Surveyor
Answer: C

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NO.5 What capability does Role Based Access Control (RBAC) provide to users?
A. Assume a default role at login
B. Control access to system logs
C. Perform system operations associated with roles
D. Assume the role of root under certain circumstances
Answer: C

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NO.6 A customer wants to mix different applications in one LPAR to reduce administration costs.
The applications must be prioritized with high and low workload.
What is the most simple way to support these requirements?
A. WPAR
B. Versioned LPAR
C. WPAR Manager
D. AIX Profile Manager
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which of the following products can move an application between servers while the
application is running?
A. Application Manager
B. AIX Standard Edition
C. PowerVM Standard Edition
D. Workload Partition Manager
Answer: D

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A2010-598Exam Code: A2010-598
Exam Name: Assess: IBM Tivoli Storage Manager V6.3 Administration
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NO.1 Which command monitors the amount of active log space used by an IBM Tivoli Storage
Manager V6.3 server?
A.query log
B.query logdir
C.query logfree
D.query logspace
Answer: A

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NO.2 How can the activity log for IBM Tivoli Storage Manager V6.3 messages be searched from the
client fornode EPED associated with Session 4?
A.Query actiog orig = ( NODE: 4o
B.Query actiog search = ( FRED: 4
C.Query actiog search = ( SESSI ON: 4
D.Query actiog session = ( CLI ENT: 4
Answer: C

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NO.3 By default, the IBM Tivoli Storage Manager V6.3 (TSM) password expiration for an
administrator or
client node is how many days?
A.30
B.45
C.60
D.90
Answer: D

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NO.4 An IBM Tivoli Storage Manager V6.3 (TSM) storage agent has frequent connection problems
with the TSM client.Which file should be checked?
A.activity log
B.dsmerror.log
C.dsmsched.log
D.dsmstagent.log
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which file is updated when the IBM Tivoli Storage Manager V6.3 server stops?
A.errpt.out
B.dsierror.out
C.dsmserv.err
D.dsmerror.out
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which two components need to be installed in order to use LAN-free with IBM Tivoli Storage
Manager V6.3? (Choose two.)
A.IBM Tivoli Storage Manager for LAN-free on the client
B.IBM Tivoli Storage Manager Storage Agent on the client
C.IBM Tivoli Storage Manager Backup-Archive client on the client
D.IBM Tivoli Storage Manager Administration Center on the server
E.IBM Tivoli Storage Manager for Storage Area Networks on the server
Answer: B,C

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NO.7 What is the correct file extension for client auto-deploy packages?
A.tar
B.zip
C.exp
D.auto-deploy
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which parameters are used with the QUERY TOC command to display when a network
attached
storage file was generated?
A.FILEDATE and FILETIME
B.CREATIONDATE and CREATIONTIME
C.FILESPACEDATE and FILESPACETIME
D.GENERATIONDATE and GENERATIONTIME
Answer: B

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P2070-072Exam Code: P2070-072
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NO.1 What option of the InfoSphere Warehouse Administration Console'sSQL Warehousing menu is
used to immediately execute a deployed application?
A. Manage Control Flows ? Select a Control Flow ? Click Start Icon
B. Manage Applications ? Select an Application ? Click Start icon
C. Manage Instances ? Select an Instance ? Click Start Icon
D. Manage Applications ? Select an Instance ? Click Start icon
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which of the following statements about IBM Smart Analytics System modules is FALSE?
A. An IBM Smart Analytics System is limited to a maximumof 12 modules, so users must carefully
choose which modules to include.
B. IBM Smart Analytics System modules are designed to support system scalability and can be added
to the Smart Analytics System as needed to meet specific customer requirements.
C. IBMSmart Analytics System modules are designed to integrate with other modules in the system
to provide optimized performance to business analytics solutions.
D. IBM Smart Analytics System modules are designed to have different roles, such as modules for
BI,modules for warehouse data, modules for high availability failover, etc.
Answer: A

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NO.3 A cube has been designed in Design Studio. What step(s) is(are) required to make it available
to an existing cube server?
A. Deploy metadata to the database
B. Add the cube to thecube server
C. Start the cube server and cube
D. All of the above
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which of the following data flow palette operators DOES NOT have the capability of creating a
persistent DB2 table?
A. File Export
B. Table Target
C. Data Station
D. Bulk Load Target
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which is NOT a target audience for an InfoSphere Warehouse opportunity?
A. New SAP implementation
B. Existing DB2 9 customers
C. Small and mid-sized businesses looking for their first Data Warehouse
D. Companies looking for a complete reporting solution that helps to create, manage, and deliver
reports
Answer: A

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NO.6 What is the difference between the IBM Smart Analytics System 5600 and the 5600S?
A. The 5600S has two extra SAN Storage Switches
B. The 5600S is the only one that comes with a System x Server
C. The 5600S uses SSD Storage Devices
D. The 5600S comes with Services
Answer: C

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NO.7 The Workload Management component of InfoSphere Warehouse 9.7 provides
_________________.
A. control of individual database activities
B. control of concurrency of database activities
C. fine grained, light weight monitoring of database activities
D. All of the above
Answer: D

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NO.8 When preserving a mining model rules in a relational table, which mining operator is
needed?When preserving amining model? rules in a relational table, which mining operator is
needed?
A. An annotator
B. A visualizer
C. An introspector
D. There is no function to do this.
Answer: C

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