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Exam Code: C4040-332
Exam Name: High Availability for AIX - Technical Support and Administration -v2
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Last Update: 2014-10-27

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Exam Code: C4070-623
Exam Name: System z Cloud and Linux Solution Selling
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Exam Code: C2020-013
Exam Name: IBM SPSS Data Mining for Business Partners v2
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NO.1 Which solution offering is only available for the System z platform?
A. CloudBurst
B. SmartCloud
C. CloudSpace
D. CloudReady
Answer: D

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NO.2 How can a customer improve consistency in its application server environment?
A. Using SmartCloud Workbench
B. Using SmartCloud Audit Control
C. Updating existing servers using Tivoli Provisioning Manager
D. Keeping servers the same using Tivoli Provisioning Manager
Answer: D

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NO.3 A large software development company that works with customer critical data is losing profits
because of inconsistent versions of its products that several clients use. This situation is causing
customers to migrate to a different solution.
How can a Cloud environment help reduce costs without compromising the security of the data?
A. The patch management capabilities in a System z Cloud maintains the application and
middleware versions.
B. Adopting a private Cloud solution will give the software company a faster go-to-market and
obtain new customers to replace lost revenue.
C. A public Cloud with one application and database server per customer provides the necessary
controls of the application and middleware version with lower cost.
D. A public Cloud with a unique database server and a unique application server for all customers
guarantees that all systems would be at the same release and also provides security.
Answer: A

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NO.4 Why would System z Cloud be an advantage for a customer with limited human IT resources?
A. It requires less administration.
B. It costs less per virtual machine.
C. It uses less space in the data center.
D. It consumes less power in the data center
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which feature of System z processor virtualization reduces the latency of cross partition
communications?
A. HiperSockets
B. HyperTransport
C. QuickPath Interconnect (QPI)
D. Jupiter Interconnect System Bus Architecture
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which System z Cloud feature provides scalability to meet Service Level Agreements without
over-provisioning to meet peak capacity, like Teradata and ExaData?
A. HiperSockets
B. HiperDispatch
C. Level 4 Cache
D. On/Off Capacity on Demand
Answer: D

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NO.7 What is the recommended first step when implementing System z Cloud?
A. Cooling water
B. Seismic evaluation
C. Energy assessment
D. Direct current availability
Answer: C

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NO.8 A customer wants to build an Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) model to host external Cloud
services. Which product is needed to move toward this objective?
A. xCAT
B. TOSCA
C. SmartCloud Control Desk
D. SmartCloud Cost Management
Answer: A

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Exam Code: C2010-659
Exam Name: Fundamentals of Applying IBM SmartCloud Control Desk V1
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NO.1 A user added new loggers in the Logging application on a clustered test server and selected
Apply Settings. The user confirmed that the relevant messages were written into the log file. During
the maintenance window, the same server was restarted. The user cannot find the new loggers he
added previously when he logged back in the next day. What could be the reason?
A. The server was not started properties.
B. The Apply Settings action in the Logging application only works with the current login session.
C. The database was restarted during the maintenance window which over-wrote the logger
settings.
D. When the server restarted, the settings in the logging.properties file (not the settings in the
database) were applied.
Answer: D

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NO.2 For easy maintenance, a customer needs to capture individual hourly log files on a daily basis.
What setting(s) need to be configured?
A. In the Logging application, select Action> Manage Appenders, add a new row, fill in File Name,
File Size, and Index.
B. In the System Properties application, select Action > Manage Logging, add a new row, fill in File
Name, File Size, and Index.
C. In the Logging application, select Action > Manage Appenders, select Polling, fill in File Name, File
Size, and Backup Index to 24.
D. In the System Properties application, select Action > Manage Appenders, schedule to run every
24 hours, fill in File Name, and File Size.
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which IBM SmartCloud Control Desk edition would include applications and capabilities to
manage the data centers of multiple customers?
A. Everyplace
B. Entry Edition
C. Service Provider offering
D. IBM SmartCloud Control Desk
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which three tasks are available in the IBM SmartCloud Control Desk Entry Edition? (Choose
three.)
A. Importing data
B. Managing changes
C. Managing IT assets
D. Administering self-service
E. Managing configuration items
F. Working with incidents and problems
Answer: B,D,F

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NO.5 When a bulletin board message has been created and approved, what happens if no audience
is specified?
A. An error is generated.
B. The message will be visible to all users.
C. The message will not be visible to any user.
D. The message will only be visible to the creator.
Answer: B

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NO.6 IBM SmartCloud Control Desk is an IT Infrastructure Library compliant solution that includes
which features?
A. Self Service Catalog, Change/Configuration/Release Management, and Event Management
B. Self Service Catalog, Network Management, and IT Asset Lifecycle and Compliance Management
C. Self Service Catalog, Change/Configuration/Release Management, and IT Asset Lifecycle and
Compliance Management
D. Service Desk, Cloud Provisioning, Change/Configuration/Release Management, and IT Asset
Lifecycle and Compliance Management
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which edition is included in the IBM SmartCloud Control Desk VMImage solution?
A. Full Edition
B. Entry Edition
C. Everyplace Edition
D. Service Provider Edition
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which statement is true about the IBM SmartCloud Control Desk E-Mail Listener?
A. It can process encrypted messages.
B. It can process digitally signed messages.
C. It supports POP3 and IMAP protocols only.
D. It does not support embedded attachments.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: C4040-227
Exam Name: Associate AIX 7 Administration
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Exam Code: C2180-318
Exam Name: IBM WebSphere Application Server Network Deployment V8.5, Core Administration
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NO.1 A host has a single virtual Ethernet adapter (ent0) configured with only a default PVID, and
the administrator is trying to determine why it cannot be used to reach any other system on the
network. He suspects that it may be caused by a problem in the VLAN configuration.
How would the administrator determine the VLAN for which the adapter was configured?
A. Use the command 'Isdev -I ent0' on the host to determine the port VLAN ID.
B. Use the command 'Isattr-EI ent0' on the host to determine the port VLAN ID.
C. Look on the HMC to determine which VLAN is configured for the adapter.
D. Examine the Shared Ethernet Adapter on the Virtual I/O Server to determine which VLAN the
adapter is using.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which of the following is a requirement for a concurrent firmware update on a Power Systems
server?
A. The firmware must be upgraded to a new release.
B. The Power Systems server must have a redundant FSP .
C. The Power Systems server must be managed by an HMC.
D. The primary partition must have all system resources assigned.
Answer: C

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NO.3 In order to enable an AIX host to use one virtual Ethernet adapter to communicate on multiple
VLANs, what is required?
A. The VLAN devices used by the host must be configured with IP addresses on different subnets.
B. The virtual Ethernet adapter must be set to full duplex in AIX.
C. VLAN devices must be configured in the AIX host.
D. The virtual Ethernet adapter must be configured as a trunk adapter.
Answer: C

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NO.4 After performing a NIM rte install, the administrator noticed that not all filesets are at the
correct Technology Level (TL). What action will help the administrator determine why the
inconsistent fileset levels were installed?
A. On the NIM server, run an Ippchk to identify if the Software Vital Product Data is valid.
B. On the NIM client, run oslevel command against the TL to identify missing prerequisites.
C. Run instfix command on NIM client to determine what filesets are inconsistent.
D. On the NIM server run the NIM IsIpp command to indentify downlevel filesets contained in the
lpp_source.
Answer: D

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NO.5 The/app1 filesystem in appvg did not mount due to a failure replaying jfslog1. Which
command will reinitialize jfslog1?
A. resysnclvodm -vjfslog1
B. logform/dev/jfsiog1
C. synclvodm appvg jfslog1
D. format-d/dev/jfslog1
Answer: B

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NO.6 An administrator needs to list/query the security attributes for the WPAR syswpar1. Which
command will do this?
A. Issecattr-W syswpar1
B. Issecconf-w syswpar1
C. Isattr-s syswpar1
D. Iswpar-S syswpar1
Answer: D

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NO.7 A new security policy dictates that unnecessary default user accounts be removed. Which
default user IDs are most eligible for removal?
A. nobody and adm
B. root, sys and system
C. daemon, Ipd, adm and guest
D. nuucp. Ipd, and guest
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which action will temporarily disable remote login access using telnet and ssh for all non-root
accounts?
A. Update /etc/security/passwd and recycle the inetd subsystem.
B. Stop the sshd subsystem.
C. Create a/etc/nologin file.
D. Set the PermitLogins parameter in /etc/ssh/sshd_config and recycle the sshd daemon.
E. Touch the /etc/sshd/nologin file and recycle the sshd daemon.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: M2020-248
Exam Name: IBM Cognos Midmarket Foundational Sales Mastery Test v1
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NO.1 Which buying agenda is about turning data into accessible information and delivering the right
level to different users?
A. analysis
B. reporting
C. planning
D. intelligence
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which statement is true about restrictions on IBM Cognos Express?
A. A customer may only purchase one IBM Cognos Express environment.
B. The maximum number of users is 50 per module, but no more than 100 in the environment.
C. IBM Cognos Express must be installed on a single Windows host.
D. A server hosting IBM Cognos Express may have a maximum of 64 cores.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which question will yield the best results when selling IBM Cognos Express to a director of
sales
or marketing?
A. What happens when you do not identify the early warning signs of bottlenecks orproblems?
B. What happens when management is not able to get information they need in a timely manner
for decision making or do not have the visibility they need across the multitude of business
systems?
C. When looking at your customers, are you able to determine which of them is likely to be the
most profitable, costly, or most satisfied so you can to be proactive in managing them?
D. How many people do you have creating and maintaining reports, and what is the annual cost
for supporting your reporting applications?
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which IBM Cognos Express module provides a Web-based tool for analysis?
A. Reporter
B. Manager
C. Advisor
D. Xcelerator
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which manager would it be most effective to ask, "Do you have a difficult time meeting the
needs
around information requests?" when proposing IBM Cognos Express?
A. accounting manager
B. sales manager
C. IT manager
D. customer service manager
Answer: C

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6. Which question will yield the best results when selling IBM Cognos Express to a director in
operations or manufacturing?
A. What happens when you do not identify the early warning signs of bottlenecks or problems?
B. What happens when managementnot able to get information they need in a timely manner
fordecision-makingor do not have the visibility they need across the multitude of business
systems?
C. When looking at your customers, are you able to determine which of them is likely to be the
most profitable, costly, or most satisfied so you can to be proactive in managing them?
D. How many people do you have creating and maintaining reports, and what is the annual cost
for supporting your reporting applications?
Answer: A

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7. Which statement is true about the ideal prospect for IBM Cognos Express?
A. They are less mature in their business intelligence processes.
B. They are a small company (<100 employees).
C. They are an existing Cognos customer
D. They require more than just the essential reporting, analysis, and planning capabilities.
Answer: A

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8. Which statement is true about midmarket companies?
A. They are less price sensitive
B. They have fewer IT constraints
C. They rely less on Microsoft Excel for their business intelligence strategies
D. They have closer alignment between their IT and business departments
Answer: B

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9. An organization currently uses silos of Microsoft Excel spreadsheets for their business analytics
processes. They want to enhance the way they use this information to make plans and budgets.
Which IBM Cognos Express module best meets their needs?
A. Reporter
B. Manager
C. Advisor
D. Xcelerator
Answer: D

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10. What are the 3 key pillars to the IBM Cognos Express value proposition?
A. Cognos Express is easy to install, easy to sell, and easy to buy.
B. Cognos Express is easy to purchase, easy to maintain, and easy to navigate.
C. Cognos Express is easy to install, easy to use, and easy to buy.
D. Cognos Express is easy to use, easy to understand, and easy to manage.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: M2050-655
Exam Name: IBM Emptoris Services Procurement Sales Mastery Test v1
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Exam Code: P2140-049
Exam Name: IBM Rational Focal Point Technical Sales Mastery Test v1
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NO.1 Which of the following is NOT true about a qualified Target account for Services Procurement?
A. They must employ at least 1500 temporary workers
B. They have challenges managing that spend with their existing processes and tools
C. They spend a significant amount ($100m+) on 3rd party service categories
D. There is a key stakeholder interested in driving change
Answer: A

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NO.2 For Projects heavily focused on temporary labor spend, this stakeholder group will have heavy
influence on policy, strategy, and compliance issues:
A. Finance
B. Internal Control
C. Human Resources
D. Procurement
Answer: C

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NO.3 Ariba's primary competing product for Services Procurement is called:
A. Ariba Buyer
B. Ariba Sourcing
C. Ariba Catalog Manager
D. Ariba Services Procurement
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which of the following are three Qualification warning signs for services procurement projects?
A. Global Scale, Large Spend. Decentralized Organization
B. Multiple Categories, large SAP/Oracle Shot, thousands of suppliers
C. Only focused on temporary labor, no executive sponsor, departmental initiative
D. Sponsored by Finance, Pilot project in single business area
Answer: D

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NO.5 All of the following are generally true about the Services Procurement solutions EXCEPT:
A. ClOs generally welcome alternatives to in-house ERP solutions
B. The Solutions are designed for Large Companies with significant services spend
C. Software as a Service (SaaS) is the most common deployment model
D. Implementation costs are low and ROI is usually less than 12 months
Answer: A

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NO.6 Employment Laws, Worker Safety laws and Privacy laws are 3 examples of:
A. Compliance issues for any supply chain category
B. Complexities in procuring services that are typically not seen in goods procurement
C. Laws that apply to employees but not temporary workers
D. Laws that apply to temporary workers but not employees
Answer: B

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NO.7 Emptoris Services Procurement Competes against all of the following, EXCEPT:
A. Core ERP Finance Modules (AP, etc.)
B. HR Software Solutions (Peoplesoft, SAP HR)
C. Enterprise eProcurement Platforms (SAP SRM, Oracle Procurement, Ariba Buyer/Services
Procurement)
D. Vendor Management Systems (VMS) focused on labor (FieldGlass, IQNavigator)
Answer: C

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NO.8 Managed Service Provider (MSP) and Vendor Management System (VMS) fees most typically
follow a pricing model that:
A. Is priced as a percentage of the billings through the program
B. Is priced on a fixed annual fee basis
C. Is priced by the number of buyers using the system
D. Is priced based on the number of assignments filled
Answer: B

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NO.1 If the administrator needs to fix an IBM Lotus Quickr place, the QPTOOL server command can
be
used to lock it. What is the correct syntax to lock a place?
A. load qptoollock placename
B. load qptool placename lock
C. load qptool lock placename
D. load qptool lock -p placename
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which step must be completed before running the installation wizard for IBM Connections
4.0?
A. disconnect all database connections
B. install IBM Cognos Business Intelligence
C. stop IBM WebSphere Application Server Network Deployment Manager
D. start IBM WebSphere Application Server Network Deployment Manager
Answer: D

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NO.3 What could improve chat performance in a large deployment?
A. decrease the IBM WebSphere logging level
B. add more servers to the Meeting server cluster
C. separate the Media Manager components into individual servers
D. increase the MaxUsersPort setting in the Microsoft Windows server registry
Answer: D

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NO.4 IBM Sametime Mobile is supported on which three platforms? (Choose three.)
A. iOS
B. Brew
C. MeeGo
D. webOS
E. Android
F. BlackBerry
Answer: A,E,F

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NO.5 Along with Login ID, which two options are required so that a developer can use the User SPI
to
retrieve more information about a person? (Choose two.)
A. Title
B. Address
C. Date of Birth
D. E-mail Address
E. Unique User ID
Answer: D,E

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NO.6 If the administrator wants the IBM Lotus Quickr Connectors to install without prompting the
user at
all, what should be included after qkrconn.exe /install?
A. /quiet
B. /silent
C. /noask
D. /noprompt
Answer: A

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NO.7 By default, which address accesses the IBM Cognos server Content Manager?By default, which
address accesses the IBM Cognos server? Content Manager?
A. http://Host_Name/Context_Root/servlet
B. http://Host_Name:Port/Context_Root/servlet
C. http://Host_Name:Port/Context_Root/cognos
D. http://Host_Name:Port/CongosServer/Context_Root/servlet
Answer: B

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NO.8 How would an administrator rebuild the placecatalog.nsf database on an IBM Lotus Quickr
server?
A. run the command load qptool rebuild -placecatalog
B. run the command load qptool recreate -placecatalog
C. bring down the server, delete the placecatalog.nsf database at the operating system level, and
restart the server
D. log into Lotus Quickr using a browser, go to the Site Administration link, and click the Recreate
PlaceCatalog button
Answer: C

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Exam Code: C2020-706
Exam Name: IBM Cognos Financial Statement Reporting Developer
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NO.1 What is the SQL statement cache used for?
A. To cache static SQL statements.
B. To cache dynamic SQL statements across sessions.
C. To cache all SQL statements for tracing purposes.
D. To provide a history of SQL statements to the application.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Assuming you have an employee table that stores the salary for each employee. What
will this query
return? SELECT AVG(salary), STDEV(salary) FROM employees;
A. Average salary and standard deviation for all rows.
B. Average salary and standard deviation for all rows not containing NULL salaries.
C. Average salary and standard deviation for all rows assuming zero for NULL salaries.
D. Average salary and standard deviation for all rows assuming the average value for NULL
salaries.
Answer: B

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NO.3 How is the DBINFO function used in the SQL statement below? SELECT FIRST 1
DBINFO('sessionid')
FROM systables;
A. The DBINFO function sets the session id.
B. The DBINFO function creates a new session.
C. The DBINFO function returns the current session id.
D. The DBINFO function is a wrapper to the systables table.
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which Committed Read isolation level statement is correct?
A. It locks all rows examined.
B. It does not check for locks.
C. It checks for locks after returning a row.
D. It checks for locks before returning a row.
Answer: D

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NO.5 A user has opened two sessions, SESSION_1 and SESSION_2, connecting to the
same database
containing a table named customer. The following query is executed first from SESSION_1
and then from
SESSION_2 (without closing SESSION_1): SELECT * FROM customer INTO TEMP
cust_temp What is
the outcome in SESSION_2?
A. A locking error.
B. SELECT query will wait till SESSION_1 has ended.
C. Error indicating Temp table (cust_temp) already exists.
D. All rows from customer table will be retrieved intocust_temp table.
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which type of isolation level results in a lock on every row a query examines in order
to retrieve any row
from the result set?
A. DIRTY READ
B. COMMITTED READ
C. CURSOR STABILITY
D. REPEATABLE READ
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which temporary table statement is NOT true?
A. The table can use multipledbspaces.
B. The table can have fragmented indexes.
C. Temporary tables are visible to all users.
D. The table exists until the database is closed.
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which statement describes a select cursor?
A. It is used when you associate an EXECUTE FUNCTION statement with a cursor.
B. It is a cursor that uses the FETCH option to retrieve successive rows of data from another
cursor.
C. It is the representation of columns or values that a user-defined function returns after a
SELECT
statement.
D. It is a data structure that represents the active set of rows that the SELECT statement
retrieved.
Answer: D

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NO.1 Which is NOT a target audience for an InfoSphere Warehouse opportunity?
A. New SAP implementation
B. Existing DB2 9 customers
C. Small and mid-sized businesses looking for their first Data Warehouse
D. Companies looking for a complete reporting solution that helps to create, manage, and deliver
reports
Answer: A

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NO.2 What is the difference between the IBM Smart Analytics System 5600 and the 5600S?
A. The 5600S has two extra SAN Storage Switches
B. The 5600S is the only one that comes with a System x Server
C. The 5600S uses SSD Storage Devices
D. The 5600S comes with Services
Answer: C

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NO.3 The Workload Management component of InfoSphere Warehouse 9.7 provides
_________________.
A. control of individual database activities
B. control of concurrency of database activities
C. fine grained, light weight monitoring of database activities
D. All of the above
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which of the following statements about IBM Smart Analytics System modules is FALSE?
A. An IBM Smart Analytics System is limited to a maximumof 12 modules, so users must carefully
choose which modules to include.
B. IBM Smart Analytics System modules are designed to support system scalability and can be added
to the Smart Analytics System as needed to meet specific customer requirements.
C. IBMSmart Analytics System modules are designed to integrate with other modules in the system
to provide optimized performance to business analytics solutions.
D. IBM Smart Analytics System modules are designed to have different roles, such as modules for
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Answer: A

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NO.5 When preserving a mining model rules in a relational table, which mining operator is
needed?When preserving amining model? rules in a relational table, which mining operator is
needed?
A. An annotator
B. A visualizer
C. An introspector
D. There is no function to do this.
Answer: C

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NO.6 A cube has been designed in Design Studio. What step(s) is(are) required to make it available
to an existing cube server?
A. Deploy metadata to the database
B. Add the cube to thecube server
C. Start the cube server and cube
D. All of the above
Answer: D

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NO.7 What option of the InfoSphere Warehouse Administration Console'sSQL Warehousing menu is
used to immediately execute a deployed application?
A. Manage Control Flows ? Select a Control Flow ? Click Start Icon
B. Manage Applications ? Select an Application ? Click Start icon
C. Manage Instances ? Select an Instance ? Click Start Icon
D. Manage Applications ? Select an Instance ? Click Start icon
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which of the following data flow palette operators DOES NOT have the capability of creating a
persistent DB2 table?
A. File Export
B. Table Target
C. Data Station
D. Bulk Load Target
Answer: A

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Exam Code: C2010-502
Exam Name: IBM Endpoint Manager for Mobile Devices V2.1 Implementation
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Exam Code: A2040-412
Exam Name: Assessment: IBM Notes Traveler Administration
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NO.1 Apple devices are not receiving commands sent from the iOS Management Extender. Which
log file should be checked to ensure the iOS extender is communicating with the Apple Push
Notification Service?
A. jetty.log
B. apns.log
C. iosmdm.log
D. mdm_tasks.log
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which mobile devices can only be managed using the Management Extender for Microsoft
Exchange?
A. AppleiOS4.xdevices
B. BlackBerry OS 10 devices
C. SAEE enabled Android devices
D. Microsoft Windows Mobile 5.x devices
Answer: B

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NO.3 Where would a device obtain an APK file during application installation once it has been
imported to the IBM Endpoint Manager for Mobile Devices? (Choose two.)
A. relay
B. App Store
C. Google Play
D. corporate intranet site
E. IBM Endpoint Manager server
Answer: A,E

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NO.4 What is the recommended maximum number of iOS devices that should report to an iOS
management extender?
A. 500
B. 1000
C. 5000
D. 10000
Answer: C

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NO.5 An employee's corporate mobile device managed by IBM Endpoint Manager (IEM) was stolen.
The device is accessing corporate data both using e-mail and VPN profiles. Which action can be
initiated by the EM console operator to protect access to corporate data?
A. run the action of task Device Wipe against the stolen device
B. run the action of task Selectively Wipe Corporate Device against the stolen device
C. run the action of task Selectively Wipe Android Device (Deprovision) against the stolen device
D. run the action of task Selectively Wipe Apple iOS Device (Deprovision) against the stolen device
Answer: A

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NO.6 An IBM Endpoint Manager administrator who is responsible for managing iOS mobile devices
needs to view a list of applications installed on a particular OS device. Where can this be done?
A. Mobile Device dashboard
B. iOS Device View dashboard
C. Single Device View dashboard
D. Enterprise Apps Management dashboard
Answer: C

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NO.7 The Management Extender for iOS devices opens a Command Port to listen for commands
received from the IBM Endpoint Manager server. What is the default port value?
A. 23
B. 443
C. 52311
D. 52315
Answer: D

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NO.8 An Android device cannot be enrolled with a message similar to: Received an invalid server
URL. What should be checked by the IBM Endpoint Manager administrator to identity the problem?
A. confirm the Trusted Service Provider is up and running
B. make sure the provided server name points to the enrollment server
C. make sure the provided URL points to the Trusted Service Provider URL
D. check if the maximum number of device has been reached for the enrollment server
Answer: B

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Exam Code: A2150-195
Exam Name: Assess: IBM Security QRadar V7.0 MR4 Fundamentals
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Exam Code: M2020-645
Exam Name: IBM Cognos Business Intelligence Sales Mastery Test v2
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NO.1 What is a high-yield question when positioning IBM Cognos BI to the CIO of an
organization?
A. Do your users trust the data that they have access to?
B. How do you identify outliers in your business?
C. How do you handle information requests from the business?
D. What happens when management is not able to get information they need quickly?
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which major differentiator did version 10 introduce to the IBM Cognos BI interface.?
A. Separate workspaces for distinct roles.
B. Unified workspace for all users.
C. Mobile support for all functionality.
D. Ad hoc reporting capabilities.
Answer: B

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NO.3 What is NOT a major advantage that IBM Cognos BI products have over the
competition?
A. Promotion of self-service.
B. Ability to consume information in a variety of formats, languages, and devices.
C. Consistency and accessibility from a wide range of data sources across the entire
organization.
D. Ability to build and automate business processes.
Answer: D

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NO.4 According to studies by IBM and Gartner, what do CIOs list as their number one
concern?
A. Compliance
B. Business analytics
C. Mobility solutions
D. Risk management
Answer: B

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Exam Code: C2010-653
Exam Name: Fundamentals of IBM TRIRIGA Application Platform V3.2.1 Application Development
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Exam Code: C4040-224
Exam Name: Power Systems with POWER7 Common Technical Sales Skills -v2
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Exam Code: C2180-373
Exam Name: IBM WebSphere Business Monitor V6.2, Solution Development
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NO.1 A customer is considering running Linux in a virtualized environment and is evaluating the
differences between PowerVM and VMware.
Which of the following would be an advantage of PowerVM?
A. Number of virtual processors
B. Ability to move virtual machines
C. Ability to dynamically add CPU's
D. Ability to dynamically add memory
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which of the following will cause Live Partition Mobility validation to fail?
A. Less than one full processor
B. AME configured for the partition
C. Network connection through HEA
D. NPIV connection to SAN storage through VIOS
Answer: C

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NO.3 A customer is interested in virtualizing their environment. PowerVM and VMware are the
products whose hypervisors are best suited for their existing infrastructure.
Which advantage of PowerVM over VMware will most benefit their environment?
A. Industry leading hypervisor
B. Lower total cost of ownership
C. Consolidation of multiple workloads
D. Hypervisor components embedded in hardware
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which is one of the advantages of the 6-core Power 720 when compared to the 4-core Power
720?
A. Offers a P05 tier
B. Offers one 12X loop
C. Offers Dual VIO Servers
D. Offers more SAS Disk Bays in CEO
Answer: B

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NO.5 A customer plans to deploy a 24x7 application, and is evaluating prospective solutions based
on which would offer the highest level of application availability.
Which of the following solutions should be presented to the customer for consideration?
A. Power 780 with Active Memory Sharing
B. Power 770 with Active Memory Mirroring
C. Power 760 with Active Memory Mirroring
D. Power 740 with Active Memory Management
Answer: B

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NO.6 A customer wants to implement 8 LPARs, 4 of IBM i and 4 of AIX. The customer wants the new
systems to be modular, configured to support their needs, and have room to expand if needed.
Which system is the minimum needed to support the customer requirements?
A. PureElex p220
B. PureElex p260
C. PureFlex p24L
D. PureFlex p460
Answer: B

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NO.7 A customer wants to implement Linux on Power with dual VIO Servers on internal disk
controllers. Which of the following systems should be suggested?
A. Power 720
B. Power 730
C. PowerLinux 7R1
D. PowerLinux 7R2
Answer: A

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NO.8 A customer would like to consolidate their AIX and IBM i workloads that are currently running
on several POWER6 servers. They also want to consolidate storage and use Live Partition Mobility to
reduce planned downtime for server maintenance.
In addition to a Storwize V70001 PowerVM Enterprise Edition and dual VIO Servers, which of the
following configurations supports these requirements?
A. One POWER7+ server IBM i and AIX client LPARs
B. Two POWER7+ servers IBM i and AIX client LPARs
C. One POWER7+ server AIX client LPARs IBM i LPAR5 with internal storage
D. Two POWER7+ servers AIX client LPAR5 IBM i LPARs with internal storage
Answer: B

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Exam Code: M2050-242
Exam Name: IBM Commerce Solutions Supply Chain Mgmt Sales Mastery Test v1
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Exam Code: C2040-440
Exam Name: IBM WebSphere Portal & Portal Products Fundamentals
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NO.1 Which of the following processes CANNOT be performed by a partner?
A. Carrier On-Boarding
B. EDI Map Testing and Certification
C. Level One Support
D. New Organization Creation
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which of the following documents CANNOT be generated in the IBM TMS
(Transportation Management
System)?
A. Shipment Manifest
B. Export Declaration
C. Master Bill of Lading
D. Custom LTL Manifest
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which of the following is NOT a capability of the IBM WMS (Warehouse Management
System)
Productivity Manager?
A. Automatic recording of productivity based on tasks performed.
B. Manual recording of productivity for tasks executed outside.
C. Pick-Pack Capabilities
D. Dynamic computation of SAM (Standard Allowable Minutes) based on historical task
information.
Answer: D

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NO.4 What is the most common ERP/Order Management platform that IBM TMS
(Transportation
Management System) platform interfaces with.?
A. Manhattan
B. AS400
C. SAP
D. Oracle
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which of the following is NOT one of the four core functional quadrants of the TMS
(Transportation
Management System) solution?
A. Optimizer
B. Execution
C. Contract Management
D. Freight Payment
Answer: C

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