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Exam Code: 9L0-606
Exam Name: System Administration of Mac OS
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Exam Code: 9L0-412
Exam Name: OS X Support Essentials 10.8 Exam
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Exam Code: 9L0-060
Exam Name: Mac OS X 10.4 Service and Support Exam
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NO.1 What does the -LoginHook option do in the code sample below from /etc/ttys? console
"/System/Library/CoreServices/loginwindow.app/loginwindow -PowerOffDisabled YES
-LoginHook /Users/Admin/Scripts/mailLoginInfo" vt100 on secure
window=/System/Library/CoreServices/WindowServer
A.Disables Shutdown and Restart buttons for non-administrators
B.Invokes the script mailLoginInfo when a user logs in to the computer
C.Sets the terminal type to vt100 for each user who logs in to the computer
D.Starts the main windowing system, WindowServer, in a secure Console window on startup
Correct:B

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NO.2 Which two (2) statements about passwords for local user accounts in Mac OS X v10.3 are true?
(Choose TWO.)
A.DirectoryService is the authoritative authentication agent for crypt and shadow passwords.
B.A crypt password can be 32 bytes in length; a shadow password has no length limitation.
C.A crypt password is stored as a hash in the user account; a shadow password is stored as several
hashes in a file.
D.A crypt password is accessible by anyone using the computer; a shadow password is only accessible
by the System Administrator (root).
E.Mac OS X v10.3 creates crypt passwords by default; shadow passwords are created for a user account
when the option is specified in System Preferences.
Correct:C D

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NO.3 Identify a disadvantage of supplementing Active Directory with directory services running on
Mac OS X Server.
A.A modification to the Active Directory schema is necessary.
B.The ability to manage individual user accounts in Mac OS X is sacrificed.
C.You can no longer manage directory services with tools provided by Apple.
D.A configured directory on Mac OS X Server must be added to the Active Directory domain.
Correct:B

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NO.4 If a router on the Internet receives a packet destined for a private (non-routable) IP address, the
router will ________.
A.drop the packet
B.return the packet
C.broadcast the packet
D.forward the packet to the private network gateway
Correct:A

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NO.5 Which three (3) statements about encrypted disk images are true? (Choose THREE.)
A.Encrypted disk images are read-only.
B.Encrypted disk images can be re-sized.
C.Encrypted disk images use AES 128-bit encryption.
D.The maximum size of encrypted disk images is 1 GB.
E.Mac OS X does not leave any Cleartext copies of the contents of files opened from encrypted disk
images.
F.A tcpdump of network traffic relating to mounting an encrypted disk image reveals the disk image data in
unencrypted form.
Correct:B C E

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NO.6 Which command will identify all files in the hierarchy rooted at the current directory that have
either the setuid or the setgid bit set?
A.find . -perm +2000
B.find . -perm +3000
C.find . -perm +4000
D.find . -perm +5000
E.find . -perm +6000
F.find . -perm +7000
Correct:E

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NO.7 What three (3) pieces of information must be specified in the Active Directory plug-in
configuration in order for Mac OS X v10.3 to bind to Active Directory via the Active Directory
plug-in? (Choose THREE.)
A.IP address
B.Computer ID
C.Ethernet Address
D.Active Directory Tree
E.Active Directory Forest
F.Active Directory Domain
G.Active Directory Mount Point
Correct:B E F

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NO.8 Your umask is set to 026. You use touch from the command line to create a new file. What are the
permissions on the new file?
A.600
B.640
C.644
D.751
E.755
Correct:B

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Exam Code: 3M0-700
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NO.1 What is the benefit of using the Switch 40x0 Family's Spanning Tree Ignore/Disable
feature?
A. Prevents disassociation of Layer 2 traffic from Layer 3 traffic.
B. Enables use of a routing protocol at Layer 2 to make forwarding decisions
C. Enables use of spanning Tree Protocol (STP) at Layer 3 to prevent loops in the
network
D. Supports use of routing paths at Layer 3, while Spanning Tree Protocol (STP)
manages Layer 2 switched links
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which component of XRN technology is defined as "A set of interconnected
switches that support Distributed Device Management (DDM), Distributed Link
Aggregation (DLA) and Distributed Resilient Routing (DRR)"?
A. XRN Interconnect
B. XRN Distributed Fabric
C. XRN Interconnect Fabric
D. XRN Distributed Software
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which Switch 7700 command would show if Port#4 on Ethernet Module #2 is a
member of a Link Aggregation (LA) group and is the "LA Master Port"?
A. display interface Ethernet 2/4
B. display interface Ethernet 2/04
C. display interface Ethernet 4/0/2
D. display link-aggregation Ethernet 2/4
E. display link-aggregation Ethernet 2/0/4
F. display link-aggregation Ethernet 4/0/2
Answer: B

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NO.4 What is the maximum number of Linux Aggregation load-balancing groups
supported on the Switch 7700?
A. 4 groups
B. 13 groups
C. 24 groups
D. 64 groups
E. 128 groups
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which two are functions of Switch 40x0 Family Multinetting? (Choose two)
A. Automatically assigns multiple VLANs on each router interface
B. Floods traffic from different subnets on the same broadcast domain
C. Enables configuration of multiple router interfaces for each VLan/broadcast domain
D. Enables multiple VLANs/broadcast domains to be configured for each router interface
Answer: B,C

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NO.6 Which three are advantages of using 3Com's XRN Distribution Resilient Routing
(DRR) over Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol (VRRP)? (Choose three)
A. DRR is easy to configure and administer, VRRP is more complex to manage
B. DRR supports both IP unicast and IP multicast traffic, VRRP only supports IP unicast
routing
C. DRR fast failover is less than five seconds, VRRP fast failover can take as long as 60
seconds
D. DRR distributes routing table updates only, VRRP distributes the entire routing table
to update other devices
E. DRR distributes routing across all switches in the XRN Distributed Fabric on the
router interfaces, VRRP uses a single Master router for all routing
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.7 Which three components are required to create a local XRN solution (excluding the
appropriate 3Com switches? (Choose three)
A. 3Com Network Supervisor
B. XRN Fabric interconnect Modules
C. High-Bandwidth interconnect Cable
D. Gigabit Multilayer Switching Software V3.x
E. Gigabit Ethernet Layer switching modules
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.8 The Switch 7700 or Switch 8800 can be used as the primary authentication service
or as a backup if the RADIUS server group is unavailable.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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1Y0-A25 Free download, 1Y0-A18 Actual Test, 1Y0-800 Exam Tests

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Exam Name: Engineering a Citrix Virtualization Solution Exam
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Exam Code: 1Y0-A18
Exam Name: Basic Administration for Citrix XenApp 6
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Exam Code: 1Y0-800
Exam Name: Citrix EdgeSight 4.5: Admin, Perf.Mon and Load Testing
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NO.1 Scenario: Nether Tech is reviewing its disaster recovery plan. Currently, users access pooled virtual
desktops, and they use office productivity applications from within their desktop sessions. Business
critical applications are hosted using XenApp Advanced Edition and are accessible from within the pooled
desktops.
The XenServer hosting infrastructure for Nether Tech's disaster recovery site has the ability to support
50% CPU and memory capacity compared to the primary datacenter in the event of a failover. All servers
in the primary datacenter are currently averaging 70-80% CPU and memory utilization.
Which delivery method would allow business critical applications to remain available to all users should a
disaster occur?
A. Pooled Desktops
B. Offline Applications
C. Assigned Desktops
D. Hosted applications
Answer: D

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NO.2 Scenario: A Citrix Engineer is assigned to manage a datacenter environment that consists of
XenServer, Provisioning Services, XenDesktop, and XenApp. Provisioning Services is used to stream
vDisks to XenDesktop and XenApp images. The current environment consists of four physical servers
running XenServer and a single physical server running Provisioning Services Currently, there are 750
users in the environment. Extensive testing has shown that each XenServer host can support XenApp
and XenDesktop workloads for up to 200 users, and the Provisioning Services server can stream images
to 4000 virtual machines. Management has just informed the engineer that a recent acquisition is going to
add 1200 users to the environment. Management also desires that the datacenter be fully redundant so
that the loss of one physical server does NOT impact business continuity.
At minimum, the engineer will need to add __________ new XenServer hosts and __________ new
Provisioning Services servers to support the new workload and make the environment redundant.
(Choose the correct option to complete the sentence.)
A. 6, 0
B. 6, 1
C. 7, 0
D. 7, 1
E. 8, 0
F. 8, 1
Answer: D

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NO.3 Scenario: A Citrix Engineer is configuring a new XenApp 6.5 farm in order to provide the Sales
department with access to a new CRM application. There are 400 users who will be accessing the
application, and the application load testing shows 512 MB of RAM utilization for each user during peak
time. XenApp will be installed on virtual machines, and the virtual machines will be hosted on XenServer
hosts.
All three of the XenServer hosts have the following hardware specifications:
1. Dual 6 core CPU

NO.4 300 GB SAN storage
The Citrix Engineer needs to ensure that users can access their XenApp resources in the event of a
server hardware failure.
Based on Citrix Best Practices, what would be the recommended configuration?
A. Create a pool with three hosts.
B. Create three pools with one host each.
C. Create a pool with two hosts and enable HA.
D. Create a pool with three hosts and enable HA.
Answer: D

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2.Scenario: A Citrix Engineer needs to set up logging to monitor a Workload Balancing related issue in a
XenServer implementation. The engineer wants to capture maximum detail about this issue before
reporting it to Citrix Technical Support.
To increase the level of detail that will be captured in the log file, the engineer should _________ and
__________. (Choose the two correct options to complete the sentence.)
A. open wlb.conf in a text editor
B. open logfile.log in a text editor
C. open auditlog.out in a text editor
D. modify the configuration options
E. enable logging for a specific trace
Answer: A, E

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3.Scenario: Nether Tech has a XenDesktop farm with Windows 7 desktops. Users are accessing their
virtual desktops from different bandwidth and latency connection types.
Which setting should the engineer configure in a Citrix User policy in order to optimize moving images?
A. Enable Adaptive Display. Disable Progressive Display.
B. Disable Adaptive Display. Disable Progressive Display.
C. Enable Adaptive Display. Enable Progressive Display with Low Compression.
D. Disable Adaptive Display. Enable Progressive Display with Low Compression.
Answer: A

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NO.5 Scenario: Engineering users within the Nether Tech environment require access to the different
XenApp published applications from multiple devices in order to execute simu-lations for their lab
exercises. Applications are published in a single XenApp farm. Remote access into the environment has
NOT been configured since the Engineering team works mostly internally.
A Citrix Engineer has configured the XenApp farm to point to a centralized license server which has 100
per user/device licenses.
How will the XenDesktop licenses be checked out from the license server when users access multiple
XenApp published applications from multiple devices in this environment?
A. 1 license for each user
B. 1 license for each device
C. 1 concurrent user license
D. 1 license for each user and each device
Answer: A

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NO.6 Scenario: As part of the designs for the XenDesktop site and XenApp farm at Nether Tech, a Citrix
Engineer is instructed to ensure that all auto-created printers use the Citrix Universal Printer Driver. As the
deployment phase begins, a home user is experiencing issues printing to a locally attached printer. When
print jobs are sent to the printer, the pages print, but only with strange characters on them.
To resolve the user s printing issue, the engineer should create a Citrix User policy and __________.
(Choose the correct phrase to complete the sentence.)
A. set a session printer to the user's default printer
B. set the client printer names to legacy printer names
C. set the client printer names to standard printer names
D. set PCL5c driver at the top of the Universal driver preference list
Answer: D

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NO.7 Scenario: Nether Tech's corporate policy requires that passwords are NOT requested for XenApp
passthrough connections, except for those that pertain to members of the Nursing Users group. Nurses
connect to XenApp servers hosting applications in the Nurses Worker Group.
Click the Exhibit button to view a list of the policies configured in the environment.
An engineer needs to prioritize the three policies so that only members of the Nurses group are prompted
for passwords when they connect to their XenApp resources.
What is the correct order of prioritization for the policies from lowest to highest?
A. Unfiltered, Nurses, Corporate Users
B. Corporate Users, Nurses, Unfiltered
C. Unfiltered, Corporate Users, Nurses
D. Nurses, Unfiltered, Corporate Users
Answer: D

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NO.8 96 GB of RAM

1Y0-200 Dumps PDF, 1Y0-310 Practice Exam, 1Y0-962 Practice Exam

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Exam Code: 1Y0-200
Exam Name: Managing Citrix XenDesktop 7 Solutions Exam
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Exam Code: 1Y0-310
Exam Name: MetaFrame 1.0 or 1.1 Administration for UNIX Operating Systems
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Exam Code: 1Y0-962
Exam Name: CCEA XP Securing Application Deployment over the Web
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NO.1 Scenario: A Citrix Administrator needs to use Provisioning Services to create a vDisk from a
target device that has the latest hotfixes and security updates applied. The master target device is a
Windows 7 virtual machine running on XenServer.
What should the administrator do to create a new vDisk from the target device?
A. Run the Imaging Wizard on the target device.
B. Run the 'Add personal vDisk storage' wizard in Citrix Studio.
C. Run the target device software to capture the target device hard drive.
D. Use the 'Export' option in XenServer to create a vDisk from the target device.
Answer: A

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NO.2 A Citrix Administrator creates a backup schedule that will back up all of the available vDisks.
Which three critical file types must to be added to the backup schedule? (Choose three.)
A. BAK
B. PVP
C. VHD
D. LOK
E. AVHD
Answer: B,C,E

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NO.3 What should a Citrix Administrator implement to improve logon times that are being affected
by profile size?
A. Logon Scripts
B. Offline profiles
C. Roaming profiles
D. Folder redirection
Answer: D

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NO.4 Scenario: A company implements XenDesktop. Windows XP users are unable to launch their
Windows 8 virtual desktops. They receive the following error:
Error: Please contact your help desk with the following information: Cannot validate SSL certificate.
What is a possible cause of this error?
A. Citrix Receiver needs to be updated.
B. The SSL certificate on the NetScaler has expired.
C. The server certificate is NOT installed on the computer.
D. Citrix Receiver is unable to verify the server certificate revocation.
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which two steps must a Citrix Administrator take to adjust the size of a vDisk assigned to a
server OS machine? (Choose two.)
A. Create a new vDisk.
B. Edit properties of the vDisk.
C. Edit the .PVP file with Notepad.
D. Use BNImage to reverse the image.
E. Mount the vDisk on the Provisioning Server.
Answer: A,D

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NO.6 Scenario: A Citrix Administrator implemented a Citrix policy to set up Citrix Profile
Management. After the administrator implemented the policy, users are still being required to set
up their applications each time they logon.
What is preventing the existing policy from working?
A. The .INI file does NOT exist.
B. There are no filters set within the policy.
C. The path specified to save the profile is incorrect.
D. The users need to be removed from the Citrix profile group.
Answer: C

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NO.7 A Citrix Administrator updates a vDisk assigned to a group of pooled desktops.
Which two steps must the administrator take to ensure that the updated vDisk is associated with
the pooled desktops? (Choose two.)
A. Update the vDisk's inventory.
B. Promote the vDisk to production.
C. Place the vDisk into private image mode.
D. Recreate the pooled desktops associated with the vDisk.
Answer: A,B

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NO.8 Scenario: A Citrix Administrator enables Citrix Profile Management for virtual desktop users.
These users are now reporting that their session logon times have become slow. The administrator
needs to gather data to resolve the issue.
To gather information on the slow logons, the administrator could use __________ or __________.
(Choose the two options to complete the sentence.)
A. Citrix Studio
B. Citrix Director
C. Citrix Profile Management log files
D. Citrix Configuration Logging database
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NO.1 In a Distributed SpectroSERVER (D5S) environment, if you create an event condition rule, which file is
updated on the SpectroSERVERS?
A. PCause
B. AlertMap
C. EVformat
D. EventDisp
Answer: D

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NO.2 To add a column to an existing table, you need to:
A. Override the default XML file in the custom area using a new unique name.
B. Edit the default XML file in the default area and reference the new XML file in the custom area.
C. Create a new table XML file in the custom area with the same name as the default XML file and
reference the default XML file.
D. Create a new table XML file in the custom area with the same name as the default XML file and do not
reference the default XML file.
Answer: C

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A. Edit the default XML file in the default location.
B. Create a file in the custom directory structure with the same file name as the default XML file.
C. Create a file in the custom directory structure with a different file name from the default XML file.
D. Create a file in the custom directory structure with a different file name from the default XML file but
reference the default XML file.
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NO.4 Use an Event Rate rule when you want:
A. No alarms for subsequent events of that event type.
B. Notification of a series of events occurring in a specific sequence.
C. Notification of the absence of an expected second event after an initial event.
D. Notification that there is a problem when a stream of the same events occurs at a set rate within a
specified time frame.
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NO.5 The EventDisp file defines event processing. Which statements about event processing are TRUE?
(Choose three)
A. An event can run a script.
B. An event can clear an alarm.
C. An event can participate in an Event Rule
D. An event can be logged to the DDM database.
E. Events can be correlated among different models.
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.1 Which TWO of the following Macintosh Computers DO NOT support Leopard? SELECT TWO
A. Mac Pro
B. iBook G3
C. Power Mac G5
D. Power Mac G4 Cube
E. PowerBook G4 (12-inch)
Answer: BD

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NO.2 A customer would like to install Leopard onto a Mac with Mac OS X 10.2 Jaguar. What installation
options will be available to this customer? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY.
A. Upgrade
B. Secure Install
C. Erase and Install
D. Archive and Install
Answer: CD

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NO.3 A customer complains that the image on her MacBook's display is too large and distorted. Which of
the following would be the best suggestion to resolve this issue?
A. Open Display preferences and change the display resolution.
B. Adjust brightness control to a more optimum setting.
C. Restart the MacBook in Verbose Mode.
D. Replace the display assembly.
Answer: A

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NO.4 A customer using a Mac with Leopard complains that she set up a new user account in Accounts
preferences, but that user does not appear in the Login Window. Which of the following is the most likely
explanation for this?
A. The user has a sharing only account.
B. The user has attempted to log in too many times.
C. The user has time limits applied that have expired.
D. The user has parental controls applied that have been activated.
Answer: A

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NO.5 Examine the exhibit. What does this symbol mean when starting Leopard?
A. The Mac is unable to find a startup disk that contains boot files.
B. The Mac cannot identify one or more folders on the hard disk.
C. The Mac cannot identify one or more files on the hard disk.
D. The Mac is unable to find the Classic environment.
Answer: A

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NO.6 After installing Windows on his Mac with Leopard using Boot Camp, a customer is unable to eject the
Windows Installer CD from his optical drive. What should you tell this customer?
A. The optical drive may have failed, and should be brought in for testing.
B. Apple does not support Boot Camp and the customer should contact Microsoft for support.
C. Until the customer installs the Mac drivers for Windows, he will be unable to use the eject key on his
keyboard.
D. The customer did not run the required firmware update and needs to do so before the optical drive will
work with Windows.
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which one of the following combinations of network configurations would require multiple locations to
properly configure?
A. PPP dialup IP address with modem and DHCP IP address with AirPort.
B. DHCP IP address with built-in Ethernet and DHCP IP address with AirPort.
C. PPP dialup IP address with modem and fixed IP address with built-in Ethernet.
D. Fixed IP address with built-in Ethernet and DHCP IP address with built-in Ethernet.
Answer: D

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NO.8 An application in Leopard has become unresponsive, and you wish to force the application to quit.
Which THREE of the following are ways to Force Quit an unresponsive application in Leopard? SELECT
THREE
A. Press Command-Control-Eject
B. Press Command-Option-Escape
C. Choose Force Quit from the Apple Menu
D. Control-click the application's icon in the Dock
E. Press and hold the power button for ten seconds
F. Press and hold the mouse button for ten seconds
Answer: BCD

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NO.1 A customer wants to automate the rerun of a C&DS job each time a Modeler stream in
one of the
jobsteps is updated. How can this be achieved?
A. A message-based job schedule can run a job, based on a notification message sent at the
update of
the Modeler stream.
B. This can only be achieved through a time based schedule if the Modeler stream is updated
at fixed
times.
C. C&DS does not allow this kind of dependency
D. Define a "loop" connector between the Modeler jobstep and the job.
Answer: A

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NO.2 If the 'Data Collection Execution Server' entry is not listed as a Type when attempting
to define a new
Server Definition, which of the following steps would you recommend to a customer to
resolve it?
A. Restart the application server for C&DS.
B. Verify the a connection to Data Collection can be established.
C. Verify the Data Collection Adapter is applied to C&DS.
D. Restart the database that houses the C&DS repository.
Answer: C

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NO.3 If problems occur during C&DS 5.0 repository configuration, which directory contains
the log files to
review for errors?
A. <C&DS 5 Repository installation directory>/install/log
B. <C&DS 5 Repository installation directory>/log
C. <C&DS 5 Repository installation directory>/config/log
D. <C&DS 5 Repository installation directory>/debug/ConfigTool/log
Answer: B

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NO.4 If the keystore file that is generated during the C&DS installation is inadvertently
deleted from the
system, which of the following steps must be performed to recover.?
A. Execute the genkey utility within the <C&DS_Install>\bin directory.
B. Enable encryption within the Tools => Security menu.
C. Manually create a new keystore file in the expected location.
D. C&DS will need to be reinstalled.
Answer: D

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NO.5 R&D fixed an issue with Modeler integration in Deployment Manager client. A Fix
Pack has been
released. For which product and which fix should the customer look on Fix Central?
A. Product: C&DS; Fix Pack for C&DS Server
B. Product: C&DS; Fix Pack for C&DS Adapter
C. Product: Modeler; Fix Pack for Modeler Server
D. Product: Modeler; Fix Pack for Modeler Adapter
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which statement correctly applies to the versioning capability of C&DS?
A. Version control and object version labels ensure the latest versions of assets are being
used in
production processes.
B. Old object versions are automatically deleted to preserve storage.
C. An analyst can store a version of a file in development, and modify it until it is finalized and
ready to be
moved into a production process.
D. Versioning refers to the ability to merge multiple object versions into one version.
Answer: C

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NO.7 A customer created a parallel C&DS installation on a separate server, using a copy of
the production
repository database. She can login to the repository, objects are being displayed, but most
jobs fail to run
and cannot be edited. What could be a likely cause?
A. During the installation, the customer chose to Discard Existing Data data rather than
Preserve Existing
Data.
B. Application server has not been started.
C. The save/restore process only migrated part of the content repository data.
D. Additional packages, existing in the production environment, have not been reinstalled
after installation
of the parallel environment.
Answer: D

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NO.8 An administrator applied a patch to the C&DS installation and started the server. A
user, using the
Deployment Manager windows client, is complaining that an issue that the patch should have
fixed in the
client is not working. What should the administrator check to resolve this?
A. Ensure the user downloaded and manually installed the corresponding client patch.
B. Verify if the client license is still valid.
C. The only way to install a client update is to re-download the Deployment Manager client
from the server.
Make sure that this has been done.
D. Ensure the user restarted the Deployment Manager Windows client, after having received
a version
update message.
Answer: D

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NO.1 A simple IBM Tivoli Identity Manager (Tivoli Identity Manager) implementation running on a
Windows-based server includes a single AIX platform with two adapters (UNIX and DB2). What are two
necessary considerations when creating an upgrade planning document for this scenario?
A. middleware versions and domain trust relationships
B. secure FTP constraints and domain trust relationships
C. middleware versions and operating system release levels
D. secure FTP constraints and operating system release levels
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which sequence of actions best describes a secure practice for sensitive data in an IBM Tivoli Identity
Manager (Tivoli Identity Manager) database?
A. Schedule periodic database backups regularly in order to prevent losing sensitive data.
B. Enable security on the WebSphere Application Server and disallow running the WebSphere
Application Server using a non-root account.
C. Restrict network traffic to those ports or systems needed by the deployment only. If you write your own
application and use a Tivoli Identity Manager API to retrieve sensitive data, encrypt the data before
sending it over the network.
D. Restrict operating system access to database files. Limit the privileges of the operating system
accounts (administrative, root-privileged, or DBA) to the least privileges needed, change the default
passwords, and enforce periodic password changes.
Answer: D

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NO.3 In a CSV identity feed, what is the definition of the name attribute?
A. the attribute that uniquely identifies the person
B. the attribute that contains the full name of the person
C. the attribute that is used by IBM Tivoli Identity Manager to resolve account ownerships during
reconciliations
D. the attribute that contains the fully qualified DN of the person in the IBM Tivoli Identity Manager
ou=person container
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which two join directives can be used when multiple provisioning policies affect the same account?
(Choose two.)
A. Xor
B. Not
C. And
D. None
E. Union
Answer: CE

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NO.5 A customer has chosen to separate the administration in IBM Tivoli Identity Manager (Tivoli Identity
Manager) of some target application services and provisioning parameters using Tivoli Identity Manager
groups. Which two options will be required, as a minimum, to implement security in this instance?
(Choose two.)
A. group-based ACIs
B. service-based ACIs for the application services
C. account-based ACIs for the application targets
D. provisioning policy ACIs for the provisioning policies
E. organizational unit ACIs with services and policies defined at that level
Answer: BD

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NO.6 When can an IBM Tivoli Identity Manager (Tivoli Identity Manager) functional test case be executed
on a Tivoli Identity Manager adapter?
A. after performance tests on the adapter have been completed
B. after the adapter is installed and the corresponding service has been reconciled
C. when a remediation procedure exists as part of the risk assessment if the test case fails
D. after test cases on the Tivoli Identity Manager server configuration have been completed
Answer: D

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NO.7 What is the proper ordering of tasks during an IBM Tivoli Identity Manager V5.1 solution project?
A. solution design, installation, configuration, customization, testing, turn over
B. assessment, solution design, installation, customization, configuration, testing, turn over
C. assessment, solution design, installation, configuration, testing, customization, turn over
D. assessment, solution design, installation, configuration, customization, testing, turn over
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which two options should be included in a custom adapter design document? (Choose two.)
A. supported platforms, Java version, log file locations
B. input requirements, installation instructions, prerequisites
C. process flow diagram, debugging information and log file information
D. prerequisites, supported platforms, process flow diagrams, source code
E. security certificate configuration, installation location, input requirements
Answer: BC

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NO.1 If a user wants to configure an ICC system to manually collect additional archiving information(metadata)
for email, where is that done?
A. For P8, in Workplace forms
B. In Configuration Manager
C. For Content Manager 8, in Webi
D. On the email server
Answer: B

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NO.2 When configuring a task in the Configuration Manager, where is the task route displayed?
A. In the design pane
B. In the configuration pane
C. In the explore pane
D. In the task route pane
Answer: A

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NO.3 What product can be migrated to ICC?
A. Commonstore
B. Email Manager
C. Records Crawler
D. All of the above
Answer: D

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NO.4 In a Microsoft Exchange environment, the ICC E-mail Connector service must be configured to logon as
what user?
A. Local administrator
B. Email server administrator
C. ICC administrator
D. Repository administrator
Answer: B

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NO.5 What objects are configured to define the item types or document classes that will be used for ICC email
Search?
A. Search collection files
B. Archive mapping and search configuration files
C. Search template and form files
D. Archive itemtype and class templates
Answer: B

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NO.1 Which of the following statements about RSTP and STP is true?
A. STP has more port states than RSTP .
B. The port roles used in RSTP is less than the port roles used in STP .
C. Since RSTP adopts fast convergence mechanism, it does not have Learning state which is available
in STP .
D. Same as STP , the ports will enter into Listening state once the RSTP has been enabled. Then, the
ports can receive BPDU and calculate the spanning tree.
Answer: A

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NO.2 A device can be assigned an IP address 192.168.13.175, with the mask being 255.255.255.240.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which of the following is not supported by policy-based route for specifying the data
forwarding path?
A. Source address
B. Port number
C. Destination address
D. Packet length
Answer: B

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NO.4 What is the maximum bits of a Class B address can be used for subnet?
A. 8
B. 14
C. 16
D. 22
Answer: B

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NO.5 After an STP switch starts, it considers itself as the root switch. Which statements about BDPU
parameter setting are true? (Select 3 Answers)
A. The switch is the designated root.
B. The designated cost is 0.
C. The switch is the designated bridge.
D. The designated port is 0.
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.6 Which statements about VLAN allocation are true? (Select 3 Answers)
A. The IP subnet VLAN is used to send the packets from the specified network segment or IP address
over the specified VLAN.
B. The MAC address- or IP subnet-based VLAN is valid for only the untagged packets.
C. The protocol-based VLAN has a higher priority than the IP subnet-based VLAN.
D. The protocol-based VLAN indicates that service types on the network are bound to VLANs.
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.7 If an MSTP switch detects that the neighboring switch works in RSTP mode, which mode does
the MSTP switch work?
A. STP mode
B. RSTP mode
C. MSTP mode
D. All of the above
Answer: B

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NO.8 If the peer default-route-advertise command is used to advertise a default BGP route to peers,
how will this operation affect the local BGP routing table?
A. An inactive default route will be generated in the local BGP routing table and this route will not
be delivered to the IP routing table.
B. An active default route will be generated in the local BGP routing table and this route will be
delivered to the IP routing table.
C. The local BGP routing table will not be affected and no default route will be generated in the local
BGP routing table.
D. A default route will be generated in the local BGP routing table and whether to deliver this route
to the IP routing table depends on route selection results.
Answer: C

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NO.1 Which HP clustering software product allocates resources and manages application performance,
based on service-level objectives?
A. Tru64 Unix
B. HP-UX Workload Manager
C. HP OpenVMS
D. HP Serviceguard
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which features of Windows Server 2008 R2 Enterprise are supported by the HP Converged
Infrastructure? (Select two.)
A. plug-and-play storage
B. clustering
C. hot-add processor
D. virtual partitions
E. FlexFabric
Answer: B,D

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NO.3 A customer hosts an Integrity server locally. The server is on a Percent CPU agreement within the HP
Pay-per-Use program. Which statement is true about this agreement?
A. The customer determines the percentage of CPUs that are active.
B. The Utility Metering Appliance reads all CPUs once every 24 hours and averages the utilization.
C. The customer can use up to 25% of the CPUs in the server.
D. Cost is based on the number of active processors.
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which requirements does the infrastructure as a service (IaaS) cloud service meet? (Select two.)
A. storage
B. application services
C. processing
D. database management
Answer: A,B

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NO.5 A long-time HP customer has an application that has developed a large quantity of unstructured
data. He is looking for a cost-effective storage solution for this data. Which drive technology is commonly
used for this type of data.?
A. SAS
B. SATA
C. PATA
D. SCSI
Answer: A

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NO.6 How do Integrity Virtual Machines (VMs) differ from vPars?
A. VMs use dedicated resources that are exclusively under the control of one kernel; vPars do not.
B. vPars employ the Platform Manager; VMs do not.
C. vPars are better than VMs for fine-grained, virtualized soft partitioning with shared resources.
D. VMs share processor and I/O devices among guest kernels; vPars do not.
Answer: D

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NO.7 You have a customer who requires a storage solution for a large amount of structured data. Which drive
technology is commonly recommended for such a purpose?
A. SATA
B. IDE
C. PATA
D. SAS
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which feature does the Integrity Superdome 2 support?
A. internal disk storage
B. zx2 chipset
C. passive backplane
D. sx2000 chipset
Answer: C

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