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Exam Code: ISEBSWTINT-001
Exam Name: ISEB (ISEB Software Testing Intermediate)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 25 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-28

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NO.1 Which of the following is an accurate depiction of the hierarchy of test management
documentation (where the highest comes first)?
A. Test policy-Test strategy-Project test plan-System test plan
B. Test strategy-Test policy-Project test plan-System test plan
C. Test policy-Project test plan-Test strategy-System test plan
D. Project test plan-Test strategy-System test plan-Test policy
Answer: A

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NO.2 When creating the functional specification for the temperature control system, which of the
following review types would be most recommended to resolve any issues?
A. A walkthrough.
B. A technical review.
C. A management review.
D. A code inspection.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which one is a product risk associated with the air quality management system?
A. The system required to monitor oxygen levels may be more expensive than those required to
monitor air temperatures.
B. SubsInc may need to recruit extra developers and testers to deliver the project on time.
C. Oxygen levels may reach dangerously low levels.
D. Extreme temperatures may lead to heat exhaustion of personnel.
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which of the following would be an entry criterion into site acceptance testing for the air
quality monitoring system?
A. That the code written to fulfil the requirement to monitor carbon dioxide levels has been 100%
path tested.
B. That the functional specification accurately reflects requirements R1 and R2.
C. That the system has been tested at levels of oxygen usage well beyond anticipated personnel
levels.
D. That the requirements for temperature control have been signed-off.
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which of the following test design techniques would be most suitable for testing that the
oxygen is released at the required times?
A. Decision Testing.
B. Statement Testing.
C. Data flow Testing.
D. Boundary Value Analysis.
Answer: D

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Exam Code: IL0-786
Exam Name: Intel (Designing Flexible Wireless LAN Solutions)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 73 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-28

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NO.1 Which statement is true about digital signals as a receiver moves further away from
the transmitter?
A. The gain is higher.
B. The amplitude is lower.
C. The amplitude is higher.
D. The delay spread increases.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which two are characteristics of narrow band RF transmissions? (Choose two.)
A. require smaller antenna radiators
B. have an inherent high level of diversity
C. occupy less RF space than wideband RF transmissions
D. are more susceptible to interference than wideband RF transmissions
Answer: CD

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NO.3 Which type of network should you use for wireless communication between a
workstation and its peripherals?
A. Wide Area Network (WAN)
B. Local Area Network (LAN)
C. Personal Area Network (PAN)
D. Satellite Area Network (SAN)
Answer: C

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NO.4 What are antennas that radiate a toroid-shaped pattern?
A. broadband
B. directional
C. omni-directional
D. multi-directional
Answer: C

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NO.5 What is DSSS?
A. Digital Signal Stream System
B. Direct Sequence Spread Spectrum
C. Doppler Sending Spread Spectrum
D. Designated System Spread Spectrum
Answer: B

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NO.6 Why should you use more than one antenna on an Access Point? (Choose two.)
A. The coverage area is larger.
B. An Access Point cannot operate with only one antenna.
C. Null zones within the coverage area are reduced or eliminated.
D. Reception is better if the transmitter is at the edge of the range.
Answer: CD

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NO.7 What is multipathing?
A. radio signals being reflected, refracted, and absorbed
B. a method used by wireless Access Points to correctly route traffic
C. a part of the design process used to determine Access Point location
D. a method used by mobile units to determine the best Access Point to associate with
Answer: A

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NO.8 What is FHSS?
A. Full Heterodyne Spread Spectrum
B. Frequency Hash Streaming System
C. Frequency Hopping Spread Spectrum
D. Function Harmonics Spread Sequence
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which type is ambient RF background noise?
A. wideband
B. sideband
C. edgeband
D. narrowband
Answer: A

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NO.10 What is the width of a single channel used by FHSS systems?
A. 1 MHz
B. 2 MHz
C. 11 MHz
D. 22 MHz
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 000-732
Exam Name: IBM (DB2 9 for z/OS Database Administrator)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 148 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-28

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NO.1 A DB2 V9 system that is in New Function Mode:
A.cannot fall back.
B.can fall back to Compatibility Mode.
C.can fall back to New Function Mode*.
D.can fall back to Compatibility Mode*.
Correct:D

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NO.2 An end-user indicates that the DRDA client application accessing DB2 for z/OS is very slow.
However, other local applications accessing the same tables are running fine. What would
indicate that this could be a DB2 problem?
A.Calculate the non-nested CLASS 1 CPU time minus non-nested CLASS 2 CPU time. If the value is high,
it suggests a problem in the DDF address space.
B.Investigate the CLASS 3 suspension time. As class 3 time includes the time that DB2 spends
sending/receiving network messages, a high value is a possible indication that the network is
experiencing a slow-down.
C.Calculate the non-nested CLASS 1 Elapsed time (ET) minus non-nested CLASS 2 ET. If the value is
high, this can only be caused by spending most time in the application, and therefore the application
should be investigated.
D.Check to see if the DB2 remote connection can become inactive at commit (Type 2 inactive). If not, this
leads to a high non-nested CLASS 1 ET and is likely the cause of the performance problem. Inactive
connections will use less CPU than threads that stay active all the time.
Correct:A

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NO.3 Which of the following RACF profiles would be used to allow IMS to access DB2 DSN1?
A.DSN1.IMS
B.DSNR.IMS
C.DSN1.MASS
D.DSN1.SASS
Correct:C

IBM exam simulations   000-732 pdf   000-732

NO.4 Which of the following buffer pool thresholds CANNOT be changed by the DBA?
A.Deferred write threshold (DWQT)
B.Immediate write threshold (IWTH)
C.Vertical deferred write threshold (VDWQT)
D.Virtual buffer pool assisting parallel sequential threshold (VPXPSEQT)
Correct:B

IBM exam simulations   000-732 pdf   000-732

NO.5 At which of the following times is the access control authorization routine (DSNX@XAC)
invoked?
A.At DB2 startup.
B.When executing a DB2 GRANT statement.
C.When DB2 has cached authorization information.
D.During any authorization check if NO was specified in the USE PROTECTION field of the DSNTIPP
panel.
Correct:A

IBM exam simulations   000-732 pdf   000-732

NO.6 A company uses TRUSTED CONTEXT "ERP1" and ROLE "ERP_ROLE" as a security mechanism
to limit security exposure for an application. All the DB2 objects (databases, table spaces, tables,
indexes, views, plans and packages) have been created by that ROLE. The ROLE "ERP_ROLE"
has been assigned to User ID "DBA01" in order to perform DBA related tasks. When the user
"DBA01" leaves the company, the authorization ID is removed. Which of the following statements
are correct? (Select two answers)
A.None of these DB2 objects need to be recreated to re-grant the privileges.
B.The related plans and packages have to be recreated and the privileges re-granted.
C.When removing user "DBA01" privileges, none of these DB2 objects need to be dropped.
D.Only the related databases, table spaces, tables, indexes and views need to be recreated and the
privileges re-granted.
E.To remove the privileges of user "DBA01" on these related plans and packages, they have to be
dropped and as a result all associated privileges are revoked.
Correct:A C

IBM exam simulations   000-732 pdf   000-732

NO.7 Which statement best describes how multi-row fetch improves performance?
A.It reduces the amount of programming required.
B.It reduces the number of SQL statements issued.
C.It reduces the amount of data sent over a network.
D.It reduces the amount of I/O required to read a table.
Correct:B

IBM exam simulations   000-732 pdf   000-732

NO.8 An application has been running in production for a long time. The size of the objects involved
has not changed, but the application is running much slower than in the beginning. When should
the DBA consider manually REBINDing the application?
A.After REORGing the objects with inline statistics.
B.When dynamic SQL is used, but only after REORG and RUNSTATS has been performed.
C.Actually it is NOT recommended to perform manual rebinds but rather have DB2 perform automatic
rebinds.
D.If the size of the objects has not changed after gathering RUNSTATS data, the access path is very
unlikely to change, and therefore no REBIND is needed.
Correct:A

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NO.9 A DBA wishes to audit all access to the non-audited table OWNER.EMPLOYEE. Assuming no
audit traces are started, which of the following steps are needed to audit access to this table?
A.-START TRACE AUDIT CLASS (5)
B.-START TRACE AUDIT CLASS (4, 5)
C.-START TRACE AUDIT CLASS (4, 5) and ALTER TABLE OWNER.EMPLOYEE AUDIT ALL
D.-START TRACE AUDIT CLASS (4, 5) and ALTER TABLE OWNER.EMPLOYEE DATA CAPTURE
CHANGES
Correct:C

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NO.10 A DBA has been required by a new company policy to implement a new DB2 security method.
The company would like to separate the authorization IDs that can execute plans and packages
from the authorization IDs that can create new plans and packages. Which of the following explicit
system privileges allows the user to create new plans and packages without being able to also
execute them?
A.BINDADD
B.CREATEIN
C.BINDAGENT
D.CREATEDBA
Correct:C

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NO.11 A DBA needs to use the DSN command processor to delete DB2 packages that are no longer
needed. Which of the following choices is correct for the DBA to use?
A.SPUFI or QMF with the DROP statement
B.FREE Package (..)
C.DROP Package (..)
D.DROP PLAN () PKLIST (..)
Correct:B

IBM exam simulations   000-732 pdf   000-732

NO.12 If an object is created statically by a role within a trusted context and the ROLE AS OBJECT
OWNER clause is specified, who becomes the object owner when executing the package?
A.The role
B.The schema name
C.The owner keyword
D.The current SQLID (if set)
Correct:A

IBM exam simulations   000-732 pdf   000-732

NO.13 What is the purpose of the following catalog health query? SELECT BNAME, BCREATOR,
BTYPE, DNAME FROM SYSIBM.SYSPLANDEP PD WHERE BTYPE IN ('T', 'V', 'A') AND NOT EXISTS
(SELECT * FROM SYSIBM.SYSTABLES WHERE CREATOR = PD.BCREATOR AND NAME =
PD.BNAME AND TYPE = PD.BTYPE);
A.For every row in SYSTABLES that indicates a dependency upon a table, view, or alias, there should be
a corresponding row in SYSPLANDEP.
B.For every row in SYSPLANDEP that indicates a dependency upon a table, view, or alias, there should
be a corresponding row in SYSTABLES.
C.For every row in SYSPLANDEP that indicates a dependency upon a table space, view, or a table that
has been altered, there should be a corresponding row in SYSTABLES.
D.For every row in SYSPLANDEP that indicates a dependency upon a table space, a table with a
VARCHAR column, or alias, there should be a corresponding row in SYSTABLES.
Correct:B

IBM exam simulations   000-732 pdf   000-732

NO.14 A DBA was examining the Log Statistics, Log Activity section in the OMEGAMON Performance
Expert Tool and noticed a large value in the field UNAVAILABLE OUTPUT LOG BUFF. This is an
important and critical performance metric. What does this performance metric mean?
A.The OUTPUT BUFFER field of installation panel DSNTIPL was specified too large so memory was not
utilized and wasted.
B.The active logs were not stripped by DFSMS and the active log data sets have to be processed
sequentially so many times.
C.The active log data sets were not placed on different volumes to reduce contention so a large amount of
I/O activity showed up in the OUTPUT BUFFER field.
D.The OUTPUT BUFFER field of installation panel DSNTIPL was specified too small so application has to
wait while DB2 was busy writing the Active log data sets.
Correct:D

IBM exam simulations   000-732 pdf   000-732

NO.15 There are dynamic SQL statements running in a subsystem that need to have their host
variables reoptimized at run-time, however the distribution of the values does not change very
much between execution. What is the most optimal bind parameter for these statements?
A.REOPT(NONE)
B.REOPT(ONCE)
C.REOPT(VARS)
D.REOPT(ALWAYS)
Correct:B

IBM exam simulations   000-732 pdf   000-732

NO.16 Which of the following DSNZPARMs is necessary to influence access path selection for certain
queries?
A.STDSQL
B.OPTHINTS
C.PARTKEYU
D.DESCSTAT
Correct:B

IBM exam simulations   000-732 pdf   000-732

NO.17 Which of the following is the correct configuration in a two way DB2 datasharing group?
A.MVSA (DB2A, active log A, workfile A) MVSB (DB2B, active log B, workfile B) Shared BSDS and
catalog and directory Coupling facility one Sysplex timer one
B.MVSA (DB2A, BSDS A, active log A, workfile A) MVSB (DB2B, BSDS B, active Log B, workfile B)
Shared catalog and directory Coupling facility one Sysplex timer one
C.MVSA (DB2A, BSDS A, active log A, workfile A, catalog & directory A) MVSB (DB2B, BSDS B, active
log A, workfile A, catalog & directory B) Coupling facility one Sysplex timer one
D.MVSA (DB2A, BSDS A, active log A, workfile A, catalog & directory A) MVSB (DB2B, BSDS B, active
log B, workfile B, catalog & directory B) Coupling facility one Sysplex timer one
Correct:B

IBM exam simulations   000-732 pdf   000-732

NO.18 Given the following RUNSTATS utility statement: RUNSTATS TABLESPACE
DB2CERTDB.MYTBLSPC1 TABLE (MYTABLE1) COLUMN(ALL) INDEX REPORT YES UPDATE ALL
HISTORY ALL which of the following statements is true?
A.Cardinality statistics will only be collected on all columns of all indexes on table MYTABLE1.
B.Cardinality statistics will only be collected on the first column of each index on table MYTABLE1.
C.Cardinality statistics will only be collected on all columns of each index associated with table space
MYTBLSPC1.
D.Cardinality statistics will only be collected on the first column of each index associated with table space
MYTBLSPC1.
Correct:D

IBM exam simulations   000-732 pdf   000-732

NO.19 Which parameter in WLM Application Environment controls the # of concurrent stored
procedures that can run in that particular environment?
A.NUMSRB
B.NUMTHR
C.NUMCTK
D.NUMTCB
Correct:D

IBM exam simulations   000-732 pdf   000-732

NO.20 An audit trace shows that TSO user TSOID1, with DBADM authority, is continually attempting to
update a table in DB2 subsystem DSN1 that is not supposed to be updated. Which of the following
will prevent access to the DB2 subsystem?
A.REVOKE DBADM FROM TSOID1
B.Change TSOID1's access to DSNR resource class DSN1.TSO to NONE
C.Change TSOID1's access to DSNR resource class DSN1.BATCH to READ
D.Change TSOID1's access to DSNR resource class DSN1.BATCH to NONE
Correct:D

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Exam Code: 000-806
Exam Name: IBM (IBM WebSphere Ap Svr Ntwk Deploy V6.1 Adv Admn)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 52 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-28

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NO.1 To improve scalability of a cluster bus member, an administrator proposes adding messaging engines
to the cluster. Which valid concern cannot be resolved through configuration?
A. Multiple messaging engines starting on the same cluster member; a review of available resources on
the cluster members must be conducted to determine if this can be tolerated
B. Duplicate messages may actually decrease the scalability of the application; the application developers
must be consulted to determine the performance impact
C. Message order not being preserved; the application developers must be consulted to determine
whether or not this will cause application errors
D. Additional load on the deployment manager as it directs messages to the partitioned destinations; a
review of available resources on the deployment manager must be conducted to determine if this can be
tolerated
Answer: C

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NO.2 An administrator is configuring a cluster bus destination on a cluster with five members on five different
physical machines. The administrator will configure two messaging engines which may be run on any of
the five cluster members. What is the simplest configuration for the messaging engines' data stores that
still ensures proper fail over?
A. A file-based data store in the config directory that is kept in sync on all cluster members by the
deployment manager
B. A single remote database accessible by all cluster members with one schema to be shared by the
messaging engines
C. A single remote database accessible by all cluster members with two schemas
D. Two remote databases accessible by all cluster members
Answer: C

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NO.3 A WebSphere Application Server ND V6.1 administrator recently added a new cluster member. When
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of partially started. What does that mean?
A. All cluster members are running, but the node agents have not been started.
B. At least one of the cluster members is running.
C. The cluster was not started by the deployment manager.
D. The cluster was created, however the servers were never stopped then restarted cleanly.
Answer: B

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NO.4 A WebSphere Application Server ND V6.1 administrator has been asked to set up cache replication for
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generated. What would make losing cache data least likely to happen?
A. Full group replication
B. Enable disk offload
C. Push only
D. Flush to disk
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which statement is true about designing highly available infrastructures based on WebSphere
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A. A stand-alone server topology provides the greatest amount of process isolation and therefore is the
most effective building block in combination with other stand-alone servers for building a highly resilient
cluster based infrastructure.
B. A horizontal scaling topology provides the greatest opportunity to implement efficient use of single
machine processing power so that should there be a failover in that environment, there will be sufficient
capacity available for the remaining nodes to pick up the workload from the failed node.
C. A vertical scaling topology provides the greatest opportunity to implement efficient use of machine
processing power so that should there be failover in that environment, there is sufficient capacity available
for the remaining cluster members to pick up the workload from the failed
cluster member.
D. A horizontal scaling topology provides the greatest amount of process isolation and therefore is the
most effective building block in combination with other stand-alone servers for building a highly resilient
cluster based infrastructure.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 000-551
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Certified Specialist - IBM Optim Implementation for Dist )
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Total Q&A: 122 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-28

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NO.1 In Attunity, where is the metadata stored?
A.On the server where IRPCD is running.
B.In XML files where it can be manually updated.
C.In the Optim Directory where the DB Alias is found.
D.On the client where Attunity Studio is running.
Answer:A

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NO.2 When designing and building storage profiles that will include writing archived data to other than Tier 1
storage (e.g., Tape, WORM drive), which statement is correct?
A.All disk type and nondisk storage devices are fully supported by Optim.
B.Make sure to implement Archive File splitting, as Optim can only write split archive files to nondisk type
storage devices.
C.Make sure that archive files are no larger than 100 MB, as all nondisk supported storage devices can
only store data in 100 MB segments.
D.Local disk processing space is a consideration, since archive data may need to be written first to local
disk before any other storage devices.
Answer:D

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NO.3 Given the command line syntax shown below: PR0CMND /R JOB=PERSONNEL' OUTPUT=PER.TXT
MONITOR+ QUIET+ Which task is performed?
A.Runs the job named PERSONNEL, places the process report output in a file named PER.TXT, and
displays prompts and error dialogs during the process.
B.Schedules a job named PERSONNEL, stores the extracted data in a file named PER.TXT, and displays
information dialogs during the process.
C.Runs the job named PERSONNEL, places the process report output in a file named PER.TXT, and
displays information dialogs during the process.
D.Schedules the job named PERSONNEL, stores the extracted data in a file named PER.TXT, and
displays prompts and error dialogs during the process.
Answer:C

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NO.4 When using InfoSphere Federation Server to access Optim extended data sources, what must be
created to define a federated object?
A.a wrapper, a system definition, a user mapping, and a nickname
B.a wrapper, a server definition, a user mapping, and a DB Alias
C.a wrapper, a system definition, a nickname, and a DB Alias
D.a wrapper, a server definition, a user mapping, and a nickname
Answer:D

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NO.5 What does an Access Control List protect?
A.the Optim program
B.nav_util
C.Optim Configuration tasks
D.any Optim object
Answer:D

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NO.6 Given the choices shown below for storage: SAN, NAS, optical disk, Content Addressed Storage, and
tape Which archive data storage and access discussion should the IBM Optim implementation lead have
with the client project leads?
A.The lower cost storage medium will usually provide inadequate access to the archived data.
B.Always start with the least expensive storage medium and then increase access speed capabilities
based upon testing.
C.The archive access and reporting requirements should drive the decisions around archive storage.
D.Always start with the fastest storage medium and then move to slower medium over the data life cycle.
Answer:C

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NO.7 You are installing IBM Optim into an Oracle environment. Which statement is correct about user
permissions?
A.The installation user requires the DBA role.
B.The installation user is the only user that can run Optim.
C.The installation user's permissions must be deleted once the installation is complete and all DB Aliases
are created .
D.The installation user must have the SELECT ANY DICTIONARY role, unless the Oracle
07_DICTIONARY _ACCESSIBILITY initialization parameter is set.
Answer:D

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NO.8 Click the Exhibit button. Given this information from the Relationships tab of an Access Definition, and
the information from this Show Steps report in the exhibit, why is the STATE_LOOKUP table listed as
UNTRAVERSED?
A.There is no active relationship for the STATE_LOOKUP table.
B.Q2 needs to be activated between SALES and STATE_LOOKUP.
C.Q1 needs to be de-activated between SALES and STATE_LOOKUP.
D.The relationship between SALES and STATE_LOOKUP is unselected.
Answer:B

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NO.9 What are three valid levels of Optim Security? (Choose three.)
A.Database Security
B.Object Security
C.Functional Security
D.Network Security
E.Archive File Security
Answer:B C E

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NO.10 What are two possible locations where would you could find the fetch strategy chosen by Attunity when
working with an extended data source? (Choose two.)
A.nav.log
B.irpcd.log
C.optdbg.xml
D.db2trc file
E.admin_svc.log
Answer:A C

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NO.11 Why is it important to use the multiple column feature of Optim masking functions (e.g., Lookup,
Hash_Lookup) when using those functions to mask multiple fields in a table?
A.Use of the multiple column feature makes coding a column map much easier.
B.Use of this feature is only a matter of preference.
C.The multiple column feature allows you to concatenate multiple columns into a single column.
D.This feature significantly improves performance during the masking process.
Answer:D

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NO.12 Who are two project team members on an Optim Data Privacy project that would impact the data
privacy specific requirements? (Choose two.)
A.client's data privacy compliance representative(s)
B.application developers that have knowledge of the data model
C.storage experts
D.client business subject matter experts (SME) with knowledge of any local or international data privacy
requirements
E.systems architecture team
Answer:A D

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NO.13 You can specify the default minimum retention period for protecting Archive Files on Centera from
deletion. How is the minimum retention period calculated?
A.from the time Centera copies the file
B.from the time the Archive Process copies the file to Centera
C.from the time that the Archive Process copies the file to the local file system
D.from the time Centera copies the file from the local file system
Answer:B

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NO.14 One Optim report provides detailed performance information about your Archive, Extract and Delete
processes, including basic table and selection criteria information as defined in the Access Definition, the
number of key values used to retrieve rows, and DBMS Access statistical information. This report is
essential for tuning your Optim processes. What is the name of this report and where do you indicate that
Optim produce the report?
A.Process Report; selected for creation on the Archive or Extract Process Request.
B.Show Steps Report; provided on Access Definition Editor.
C.Statistical Report; selected for creation on the Archive or Extract Process Request.
D.File Access Definition Report; selected for use on the Archive Process Request.
Answer:C

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NO.15 When performing an archive process that uses a Storage Profile, which action could be performed as a
result of using the storage profile?
A.Creates a connection to the database for use by the storage management device.
B.Creates a connection to the storage management device and copies an Archive File to a backup device.
C.Creates a storage allocation parameter for the storage or file management system.
D.Creates a duplicate of the existing information from the Archive Repository on the storage management
device.
Answer:B

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NO.16 What is the primary purpose of the Optim Relationship Index Analyzer Dialog?
A.It automatically creates indexes regardless of the user's rights on the tables involved in relationships
used in all access definitions stored in an Optim Repository.
B.It reviews the last time the RDBMS statistics were updated for tables used in an access definition and
automatically issues the commands to update them if they have not been run since the last archive.
C.It analyzes the index b-trees and if they are inefficient, will drop and rebuild the index automatically or
can be scheduled.
D.It analyzes DBMS indexes for relationships used with the Access Definition and to create any needed
indexes, if the user has the correct privileges in the database.
Answer:D

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NO.17 What are two prerequisites to an Optim archiving Project Kickoff meeting? (Choose two.)
A.Obtain all Optim software required for project.
B.Set up hardware for all environment installations.
C.Review the Optim and application specific documentation.
D.Finalize all archiving requirements.
E.Choose the project sponsor.
Answer:A C

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NO.18 You have installed the Optim Server on an AIX system. The system is configured with various internal
and external storage options attached to the server. Where should the Optim Temporary Work folder be
placed?
A.the attached archive appliance
B.the attached NAS device
C.the system's internal disk drives
D.the attached SAN device
Answer:C

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NO.19 Click the Exhibit button. Referring to the exhibit, what would be a success criteria for the given use
case?
A.The performance of the application will improve.
B.The archive, purge, and all related processes for the Orders object completes in less than six hours.
C.The Optim processing will remove old Order data from the database and be accessible using ODM.
D.The weekly archive and purge processing completes in six hours or less.
Answer:B

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NO.20 Which statement is correct with respect to setting expectations around archive access and reporting?
A.Access to archive data performs just like a database.
B.ODM must be used to access the archives.
C.Access using ODM provides nearline access to archived data.
D.Archive data access should rarely be required.
Answer:C

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NO.21 When positioning ODM as a mechanism to view archived data, which two capabilities would you
promote? (Choose two.)
A.Only ODM provides for access to individual archive files and collections of archive files.
B.ODM will provide for the same levels of accessibility regardless of the underlying storage medium.
C.ODM can implement row level security for archive data within the Attunity Workspace layer.
D.ODM facilitates Native Application Access.
E.ODM can be run stand-alone without Optim on the same machine.
Answer:A D

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NO.22 The Optim Initialization Exit facility provides which three benefits? (Choose three.)
A.Observes what is being done by a given user at various points in a programs logic.
B.Automates the reporting of Optim requests that fail.
C.Ensures that the users request meets your company security standards.
D.Changes the request, if needed, to pass your company standards or forbids the request altogether.
E.Adds support to Optim for new code pages.
Answer:A C D

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NO.23 Which requirement statement should raise a "red flag" within the Requirements Analysis Phase?
A.The business is seeking to privatize all personally identifiable information (PII) within the application.
B.Archiving of orders and associated data, including file attachments, older than 10 years.
C.Access to the archives just like a database.
D.Daily processing of archives from production.
Answer:C

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NO.24 Click the Exhibit button. In what Optim Implementation Methodology deliverable would the information
shown in the exhibit be documented?
A.Solution Design
B.Installation Step by Step Guide
C.Requiremements Mapping
D.Production Run Book
Answer:A

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NO.25 Which performance enhancement do multiple database connections provide when used during an
extract or archive?
A.Multiple database connections allow you to extract/archive rows from multiple tables simultaneously.
B.Multiple database connections allow you to extract/archive rows from a single table concurrently.
C.Multiple database connections allow you to extract/archive rows only from Reference Tables
simultaneously.
D.Multiple database connections cannot be used during extract or archive, only during delete.
Answer:B

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NO.26 In Optim implementations, which object aligns with the term "business object"?
A.Archive Request
B.Archive Reporting Tool
C.Access Definition
D.Archive File Collection
Answer:C

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NO.27 You have exported an Archive Request and checked the 'export subordinate definitions' box. Which
types of objects might you expect to find in the export file?
A.Archive Request, Access Definition, Optim Relationships, Optim Primary Keys
B.Archive Request and Access Definition only
C.Archive Request, Access Definition, and Table Map
D.Archive Request, Access Definition, Storage Profile, Report Request
Answer:D

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NO.28 An Archive File Collection is a list of Archive Files that are treated as a single data source by Open Data
Manager (ODM). Which two statements are true regarding Archive Collections? (Choose two.)
A.Use the Collections tab on the Archive Request Editor to specify the collection(s) in which the Archive
File should be added automatically.
B.An Archive File may belong to multiple Archive Collections, and an Archive Collection may contain
multiple Archive Files.
C.Archive Files contained within a collection do not need to be registered in the Archive Directory.
D.ODM, by default, processes the Archive Files in the collections in ascending date order based on the
dates the Archive Files were created.
E.An Archive File containing multiple tables with the same names and creator ids, but with different DB
Aliases, may be stored in an Archive Collection.
Answer:A B

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NO.29 Which document should be reviewed and validated at the end of the design and build phase?
A.Optim configurations document
B.solution design document
C.project success measures document
D.testing criteria document
Answer:B

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NO.30 Click the Exhibit button. Which Optim high level architecture area is missing from the exhibit for an
archiving project requiring a Collection of Archive Files for data reporting and viewing?
A.Optim Server
B.Extended Data Source Manager
C.WebSphere Application Server
D.ODM Server
Answer:D

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Exam Code: LOT-701
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Lotus Notes Domino Application Development Update)
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Total Q&A: 86 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-28

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NO.1 Rebecca has a number of shared actions in her Domino application, but she needs to quickly
determine which actions display in the action bar and which actions display in the menu. What feature in
Domino Designer can she check to find this information?
A. The Shared Action Location section of the Design Synopsis.
B. The Location field in the Shared Action property dialog box.
C. The Find Shared Actions button in the Action Bar design element.
D. The shared actions design columns for action bar and menu locations.
Answer: D

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NO.2 Tony needs to change a Shared Column formula, but he needs to know what views will be affected by
this change. How can Tony determine which views use a specific Shared Column?
A. In Domino Designer, Tools - Find Shared Columns
B. In Domino Designer, File - Database - Design Synopsis
C. In Domino Designer, Design - Design Properties - Shared Column Use
D. In Domino Designer, Shared Columns - Who is using this Shared Column
Answer: D

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NO.3 Bertha has a number of open Notes documents in her Notes client, and she would like to quickly close
all the tabs at once. How can she do this?
A. Actions - Close All Tabs
B. File - Close Current Open
C. Actions - Close Current Open
D. File - Close All Open Window Tabs
Answer: D

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NO.4 What information is reported on the Profile document for an agent that has been profiled?
A. Class, Method, Operation, Calls, Time
B. Statement, Execution Count, Execution Time
C. Start Time, End Time, Total Statements Executed
D. Agent, Server, Statement, Calls, Milliseconds Run
Answer: A

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NO.5 Jackie has a number of shared actions in her Domino application, and she needs to make sure the
action buttons are all using standard Notes icons. What new feature in Domino Designer can she check to
find this information?
A. The Icon Type section of the Design Synopsis.
B. The shared actions design column for icon type.
C. The Icon field in the Shared Action property dialog box.
D. The Find Shared Actions button in the Action Bar design element.
Answer: B

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NO.6 Sally has a JavaScript library design element in a Domino application that was last signed by a
developer who no longer works for the company. What new feature can she use in ND7 to resign that
single design element with her ID?
A. Edit the JavaScript library design element and resave it.
B. Highlight the library in Domino Designer and click the Sign button.
C. Click the Sign button on the Design tab of the Design Properties box.
D. Launch the Administrator client and use Tools - Sign - Script Libraries.
Answer: B

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NO.7 Gail has a complex column defined in an existing view in her Domino application. She would like to use
this column in four other views. How should she make this a shared column to be used in the other views?
A. Select the column and choose Create - Copy As Shared Column.
B. Select the Share this column option in the Column Properties dialog box.
C. Copy the column into the other views and choose Share this column in the Column Properties dialog
box.
D. Copy the column from the existing design and paste it into the Shared Column design area in Domino
Designer.
Answer: A

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NO.8 Jose needs to modify a Domino application that has a Web service as part of the application design.
Where can he find the Web service design element?
A. Other - Web Services
B. Shared Code - Agents
C. Shared Code - Web Services
D. Shared Resources - Web Services
Answer: C

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NO.9 Tony has deleted a Shared Column in Domino Designer, but it was still used in a view. What will
happen to that column in the view?
A. The column will remain in the view.
B. The column will be flagged as "hidden".
C. The column will be deleted from the view.
D. Domino Designer will not let you delete a Shared Column that is still being used in at least one view.
Answer: A

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NO.10 Tom needs to add a form alias named frmInvoice to his Invoice form design element. How can he add
this information to the form design?
A. Add the alias in the Alias field in the Form Properties dialog box.
B. On the Object tab in the Programmer's pane, select Alias and add the form alias.
C. Select the Invoice form in the Domino Designer client and click in the Alias column to edit the alias.
D. Delete the existing form and recreate it, specifying the alias name when the form is initially created.
Answer: C

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NO.1 During the Domino server installation, Mark is presented with an option asking what type of Domino
server he wishes to install. Which of the following installs a Domino server that provides both messaging
and application services, with support for Domino clusters?
A.Domino Utility Server
B.Domino Messaging Server
C.Domino Clustered Server
D.Domino Enterprise Server
Answer:D

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NO.2 A Foreign domain document defines the path between a Domino domain and which of the following?
A.Adjacent domains
B.Internet domains
C.External applications
D.Organizational domains
Answer:C

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NO.3 You have made the following entry in the server's notes.ini file Allow_Access_lan7=* ($Groups) Which
of the following will this entry provide?
A.Every group in the Domino Directory will be allowed access over lan7
B.Everyone in the Domino Directory that cannot be found in a group can access the server over lan7
C.Every group in the Domino Directory will be denied access to all other ports on the Domino server
D.No one in the Domino Directory will be able to access lan7 unless you first access another port and
authenticate as part of a group
Answer:A

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NO.4 When a recipient's mail file is not on the local server, but is in the Domino domain, Domino calculates
how to route the message to the recipient's server and whether to use SMTP or Notes routing (NRPC).
What is the next determination of how the message is routed?
A.If the user's mailfile is running the same Domino version as the sender determines how the message is
routed
B.The configuration of the local server and the message format determine how Domino moves the
message to the server
C.If the local server can send SMTP within the local Internet domain and the home mail server can
receive SMTP, the Router uses SMTP to send the message
D.The configuration of the SMTP task to allow relays on the destination server is read from the Domino
Directory. If relays are allowed the message is sent NRPC
Answer:B

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NO.5 Streaming cluster replication uses which of the following to move unread marks and folder additions to
clustered servers?
A.In-memory information
B.Scheduled replication
C.A temporary index directory
D.A database titled clurep.nsf
Answer:A

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NO.6 You are building Domino Domain Monitoring probes in Domino 8.5 and wish to create a standard
Possible Solution for all of them. Which of the following document types allow this capability?
A.Modular
B.Embedded
C.Component
D.Corrective
Answer:A

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NO.7 Notes Shared login is only available to which of the following?
A.Notes ID's protected by Smartcards
B.Notes IDs used in a Citrix environment
C.Notes IDs for users who have Windows mandatory profiles
D.Notes IDs on the computer where shared login was enabled
Answer:D

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NO.8 You built a pre-existing Domino Domain Monitoring environment with customizations to Lotus provided
Domino Domain Monitoring documents. Which of the following types of entries are migrated to modular
documents in Domino 8.5?
A.Stock
B.Probe
C.Event
D.Handler
Answer:A

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NO.9 POP3 and IMAP use which of the following for user authentication?
A.A Notes id file
B.Single sign-on (SSO)
C.Public and private keys
D.Username and Internet password
Answer:D

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NO.10 SMTP stands for which of the following?
A.Simple Mail Transport Protocol
B.Simple Mail Transfer Protocol
C.Standard Mail Transfer Protocol
D.Standard MailTransport Protocol
Answer:B

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NO.11 Rob runs the task UPDALL with the -R argument on his server. What will this accomplish?
A.It rebuilds indices in all views in all databases on the server.
B.It discards damaged indices in all views in all databases on the server.
C.It deletes all indices so that they can be recreated when users access them.
D.It removes unused space from indices in all views in all databases on the server.
Answer:A

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NO.12 Which of the following are required to be enabled for Server Fast Restart to function?
A.Cleanup Script
B.Fault Recovery
C.maximum Fault Limits
D.Server Shutdown Timeout
Answer:B

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NO.13 While installing the first Domino server, Alan is presented with a list of Internet services. Which of the
following are selections for Alan under Internet services?
A.Database Replicator, Ports and Web Interfaces
B.Directory engines, Schedule Management and Billing
C.Web browsers, Internet Mail clients and Directory services
D.Protocols, Domino Enterprise Connection Services and Web Statistics
Answer:C

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NO.14 Lotus Notes Traveler server maintains a database with information pertaining to the cluster replicas of
the mail files which are being synchronized with a Lotus Notes Traveler client. The file name of this
database is which of the following?
A.travcldir.nsf
B.mduserdir.nsf
C.ntsclcache.nsf
D.lntravcache.ndk
Answer:C

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NO.15 Jerrod, a new Domino administrator, has been attempting to take corrective actions on some Domino
Domain Monitoring events. However, the actions are not available. Which of the following rights are
required?
A.Manager rights to DDM.nsf
B.Execute CA role in DDM.nsf
C.Editor access to Admin4.nsf
D.Corective role in Events4.nsf
Answer:B

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NO.16 A Configuration Directory utilizes a primary Domino Directory for which of the following?
A.To negotiate replication settings and obtain the administrative server requests
B.To obtain information on Person, Group, Mail-In Database, and Resource documents
C.To obtain information on connection, program, schedule and certificate documents
D.To allow remote users to passthru to internal Domino servers as defined in the Configuration Directory
Answer:B

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NO.17 The Certification log records information related to which of the following?
A.Certification, recertification and name changes
B.DOLS certificates, SSL key expirations and Internet Sites
C.Recertification, self-signed certificates and SSL key expirations
D.Group membership, self-signed certificates and S/MIME certificates
Answer:A

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NO.18 Brittany opened her composite application in Designer and no provisioning occurred. Which of the
following files are read for provisioning information when a composite application is open in the Lotus
Notes client?
A.ca.xml
B.composite.xml
C.provisioning.properties
D.applications.properties
Answer:A

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NO.19 Marie, a Domino user, is sending an email to a person not found in the Domino Directory. In what
message format will the router send the message?
A.The format will always be in MIME
B.The format will always be in SMTP
C.The format will always be in Notes Rich Text
D.The format will be decided by the type of address being sent to
Answer:D

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NO.20 Which type of server installation provides standard Domino application services and custom Domino
databases for Notes and Web clients, as well as support for clusters?
A.Domino Utility Server
B.Domino Database Server
C.Domino Messaging Server
D.Domino Enterprise Server
Answer:A

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NO.21 Where can you view server statistics in the Domino Administrator client?
A.Server tab > Statistics tab
B.Statistics tab > Server tab
C.Domino tab > Server Statistics tab
D.Server Statistics tab > Domino tab
Answer:A

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NO.22 Oscar has noticed that when the Domino server launches, the Router states that it is in the domain
acme.com for receiving Internet email. Oscar has yet to create a Global Domain document for his
environment. Where is the server obtaining the domain name information?
A.From the server's host name
B.From the Ports tab of the server document
C.From the FQDN field on the server document
D.From a notes.ini variable SMTPMailDomain=acme.com
Answer:A

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NO.23 David modified the names of the ID vault administrators for the organization. When the names were
modified, they were adjusted in the vault database ACL and also in which of the following locations?
A.The Domino server log.nsf
B.The vault certificate document in the Domino Directory
C.The idvault.log file for the assigned ID vault database
D.The vault document in the Security - ID Vaults view of the Domino Directory
Answer:D

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NO.24 Which of the following Domino database elements are utilized to create documents and display Web
pages to a browser?
A.Forms
B.Views
C.Agents
D.Data notes
Answer:A

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NO.25 Which server console command adds or changes a setting in the NOTES.INI file?
A.Load update
B.Enter change
C.Set Configuration
D.Update notes variable
Answer:C

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NO.26 The purpose of the RnRMgr task is which of the following?
A.Create an individual document for each mail user in the new RnRBusytime database with busytime
marked
B.Watch for reservation requests in an R R database and to process them in the order in which they arrive
or were created
C.Scan all the mail users, rooms and resources in the domain and populate the busytime database with
the freetime for each one
D.Obtain a list of all rooms and resources across the local and foreign domains and consolidate the
freetime into a single busytime database on a daily basis
Answer:B

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NO.27 In the Domino Administrator client how do you view a visual representation of the mail system
structure?
A.Topologies tab > Mail and Messaging tab > Map section > Mail view
B.Server tab > Mail tab > Routing Map section > Server Connections view
C.Statistics tab > Messaging tab > Mail Routing section > Topology view
D.Messaging tab > Mail tab > Mail Routing Topology section > By Connections view
Answer:D

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NO.28 Each port on a Domino server may be in how many Notes Named Networks?
A.One
B.Two
C.Four
D.Seven
Answer:A

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NO.29 Domino uses which of the following to determine the best, least-cost path to deliver mail?
A.The routing table
B.The MAPS server task
C.The SMTP updater task
D.The certification view in the Domino directory
Answer:A

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NO.30 Miranda wishes to deploy LDAP access to the Domino directory. However, she wishes to restrict the
fields available to anonymous users. In what document are the fields selected that will be available to
anonymous access?
A.LDAP Site document
B.Internet Site document
C.LDAP configuration document
D.Server configuration document
Answer:D

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