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Exam Code: 4A0-109
Exam Name: Alcatel-Lucent (Alcatel-Lucent Triple Play Services)
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Total Q&A: 60 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 Which of the following is not a TPSDA network zone?
A. Home
B. Broadband Access
C. Broadband Aggregation
D. Broadband Metro
E. IP Services Edge
Answer: D

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NO.2 The Broadband Service Access Node (BSAN) may be:
A. The Alcatel 7330 FTTN ISAM
B. The Alcatel 7342 FTTU ISAM
C. Neither (a) or (b)
D. Both (a) and (b)
Answer: D

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NO.3 What are the minimum requirements for the Residential Gateway? Choose 2.
A. NAT support
B. Support Routed and bridged mode
C. Multicast (IGMP) support
D. Support IP packet filtering
E. Be able to terminate multiple access mediums
Answer: AC

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NO.4 Why does the RG operate as a DHCP server?
A. As a local backup in case the provider DHCP server is unreachable
B. The subscriber may choose to manage their own IP addresses
C. The RG will never operate as a DHCP server
D. To assign IP addresses to the internal home devices when operating in routed mode
E. To assign IP addresses to the internal home devices when operating in bridged mode
Answer: D

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NO.5 True or False. The RG is typically provider managed in Triple Play Services?
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which of the following may be connected to the RG in the subscriber home network? Choose the best
answer.
A. P.C.
B. TV with STB
C. Gaming console
D. LAN switch
E. Any Ethernet connected device
Answer: E

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NO.7 The internal BSAN architecture is composed of which of the following?
A. Line Termination (LT) portion and a Network Termination (NT)
B. Link Termination (LT) portion and a Node Termination (NT)
C. Link Termination (LT) portion and a Network Termination (NT)
D. Line Termination (LT) portion and a Node Termination (NT)
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which technical development allowed the deployment of IP protocol features at any point in the
network?
A. The invention of ATM
B. The IP enabling of the DSLAM
C. The usage of IP in the home network
D. The usage of an IP enabled BSA
Answer: B

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NO.9 The Alcatel 7302 ISAM is typically located in:
A. The customer home
B. The Serving Area Interface (SAI)
C. The provider Central Office (CO)
D. The video headend
Answer: C

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NO.10 Choose the best answer to complete the following statement. Ethernet frames transmitted by the RG
contain:
A. 802.1Q VLAN ID of zero and 802.1P priority bits of all zero
B. 802.1Q VLAN ID randomly assigned by the RG and 802.1P priority bits of all zero
C. 802.1Q VLAN ID of zero and 802.1P priority bits randomly assigned by the RG
D. 802.1Q VLAN ID of one and 802.1P priority bits of all ones
E. 802.1Q VLAN ID of zero and 802.1P priority bits as assigned by the application
Answer: E

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NO.1 What is a nostro bank account?
A. an account held with another bank
B. an account another bank holds with you
C. a trust account
D. a suspense account
Answer: A

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NO.2 Today is the fixing date for 6x9 FRA that you sold at 5.50% and for which the FRABBA LIBOR is now
6.00%. Which of the following is true?
A. You will pay a cash settlement to the counterparty
B. You will receive the cash settlement
C. There is no cash settlement pending
D. There is insufficient information to make a determination
Answer: A

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NO.3 The control failings involving Barings and Daiwa highlight the critical importance of what operational risk
management practice?
A. the taping of conversations between counterparties
B. model signing-off and implementation controls
C. the separation between front/back office duties
D. the existence of contingency plans
Answer: C

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NO.4 Under normal circumstances, which of the following is a non-negotiable instrument?
A. a Medium Term Note
B. a Bankers Acceptance
C. a Money Market Deposit
D. a Treasury Bill
Answer: C

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NO.5 How many characters does a BIC have? (Under ISO standard 9362, 2nd edition)
A. 6 or 9 characters
B. 9 or 12 characters
C. 7 or 10 characters
D. 8 or 11 characters
Answer: D

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NO.6 The notional amount in an interest rate swap is:
A. the sum of all the fixed and floating rate payments
B. the net difference between fixed and floating rate payments
C. the principal amount on which floating and fixed interest payments is calculated
D. the amount at which the two counterparties can close-out their transaction
Answer: C

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NO.7 Your money market dealer has lent GBP 5,000,000.00 at 4 3/4% for 6 months (183 days). How much
must the counterparty pay back to you in capital plus accrued interest at maturity?
A. GBP 5,117,123.29
B. GBP 5,119,075.00
C. GBP 5,119,075.34
D. GBP 5,120,729.17
Answer: C

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NO.8 In FX swaps, the rate of the spot leg
A. may be freely chosen by the quoting party as long as both parties agree on it
B. must always be fixed immediately at the current mid rate, to reflect the rate at the time the deal was
made
C. should be fixed immediately within the current spread, to reflect current rates at the time the
transaction was made
D. should always be fixed off the current spread in order not to be mistaken for a spot FX transaction
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which of the following is the main objective of position-keeping?
A. measuring market exposure
B. defining capital adequacy
C. evaluating country risk
D. monitoring counterparty credit risk
Answer: A

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NO.10 You have two nostro accounts in USD, one account is long USD 5 million and the other is short USD 5
million. What action should be taken to reconcile the accounts?
A. No action is required. The credit interest earned on the credit balance will offset the debit interest
incurred on the short balance
B. You should borrow USD 5 million to cover the short balance and leave the long balance as it is
C. You should lend the surplus USD 5 million in order to overdraft charges on the short balance with the
interest earned on the loan
D. You should instruct the bank with the long balance to pay USD 5 million to the other bank
Answer: D

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NO.11 You have just opened a position in EUR/USD that you run overnight. What risk is present?
A. settlement, counterparty and equity risk
B. only counterparty risk
C. only currency and interest rate risks
D. settlement, counterparty and market risk
Answer: D

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NO.12 Physical securities reconciliation software packages are based on:
A. SWIFT message type 5XX
B. SWIFT message type 2XX
C. SWIFT message type 320
D. SWIFT message type 400
Answer: A

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NO.13 What type of documentation is recommended for repos in the international markets?
A. An Overseas Securities Lenders Agreement
B. A ISDA Master Repurchase Agreement
C. A SIFMA/ICMA Global Master Repurchase Agreement
D. An International Securities Lenders Agreement
Answer: C

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NO.14 The maximum term for which a London Certificate of Deposit may be issued is:
A. 1 year
B. 3 years
C. 5 years
D. 10 years
Answer: C

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NO.15 When should discrepancies between front-office and back-office systems be resolved?
A. by the end of the trading day
B. on the next business day
C. on the value date
D. as soon as they become apparent
Answer: D

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NO.16 The prompt sending and checking of confirmations is considered a best practice when dealing in:
A. amounts higher than USD 10,000,000.00 or the equivalent in other currencies
B. amounts higher than USD 1,000,000.00 or the equivalent in other currencies
C. any amount unless dealt via a broker
D. any amount by any counterparty
Answer: D

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NO.17 What does "modified following business day convention" mean?
A. a convention whereby a transaction is dated the following business day, unless that day extends into
the next month, in which case it is dated the preceding business day
B. a convention whereby a transaction is dated the following business day
C. a convention whereby a transaction is dated the preceding business day
D. a convention whereby a transaction is dated the next business day that corresponds to the same
numerical day of the month as the preceding payment
Answer: A

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NO.18 If the EUR/USD is quoted to you as 1.1050-53, what does this price represent?
A. EUR per USD
B. USD per EUR
C. the interest rate differential between EUR and USD
D. the fact that one USD is worth more than one EUR
Answer: B

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NO.19 A collateral pool can be defined as:
A. assets lent by members of a payment system collectively available to the system as collateral to enable
them to obtain funds in specific circumstances
B. liabilities owned by members of a payments system collectively available to the system as collateral to
enable them to obtain funds in specific circumstances
C. assets owned by members of a payment system collectively available to the system as collateral to
enable them to obtain funds in specific circumstances
D. assets swapped by members of a payment system collectively available to the system as collateral to
enable them to obtain funds in specific circumstances
Answer: C

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NO.20 What is a feature of multilateral netting?
A. there are no more than two participants involved in the netting process
B. there is no redistribution of default risk
C. there is a central clearing house
D. no legal entity is required
Answer: C

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Exam Name: ASTQB (ISTQB Advanced Level Test manager Exam)
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NO.1 You and two junior testers have been assigned to a new project qualification by your manager.
Development of the code started two weeks ago and now you are invited to attend a code review
meeting by development manager. Meeting agenda is to cover following items.
# Verify code compliance to coding standards
# Verify comment usage frequency
# Review number of function calls
# Review logical decision points in the application
What is the purpose of this meeting?
A. Perform a Static Analysis of the code with the intention of finding bugs early.
B. Explain the testers how the program should work.
C. Get an agreement to release the partially completed software to the testing department.
D. Explain the complexity of the code.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Integrated Solutions Inc. is a software testing company with 20 testers. One of their clients
provided a software release and requested to test the software within 2 weeks.
The client did not provide any specifications of the software or any documentation.
However, Integrated Solutions Inc. testers have tested similar releases from the same client in the
past. As a Senior Software Tester, what is your best approach?
A. Test the product using "Defect and Experienced Based" techniques like error guessing,
exploratory and attacks.
B. Request for more time.
C. Explain the client why you cannot test the software.
D. Test only performance of the software.
Answer: A

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NO.3 According to ISTQB syllabus, systems of systems;
I. Contain interconnected hardware, software applications and communications.
II. Include big bang merging of independent collaborating systems to avoid creating the
entire system from scratch.
III. Can be less reliable than individual systems
IV. Characteristics include; long duration of projects, version management and regression
tests at systems of systems level.
A. I, II and IV are true.
B. I, II are true and III is false.
C. I, III, and IV are true, II is false.
D. II,III and IV are true, I is false.
Answer: C

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NO.4 Software Testers in a software development company installed the new release on test
systems and started the testing phase.
Testers verified the new functionality, performed necessary security testing and completed planned
regression tests.
During the last week of testing, testers noticed that the memory utilization was more than 95% on
two of the test
servers (out of 4 servers). This behavior was not observed during the first weeks of the testing phase.
As a test analyst, what would you do?
A. Ignore the problem because other two servers are okay (memory utilization is normal)
B. Report the problem to the developer immediately and create a defect report because it could be
a problem related to memory leak.
C. Reboot the system so that memory utilization will come back to normal. Not report it as a
problem.
D. Create a defect report and reboot the system to correct the memory problem.
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which of the following statements are false?
I. Test execution starts when the system entry criteria are met (or waived) and test
execution ends when exit criteria are met.
II. System test environment creation might start during system design in V-model III.
Long term prospects needs to be considered when selecting test process or tools. IV.
Daily/weekly scrum meetings are part of agile testing method.
A. I and II and false.
B. II, III and IV are false
C. I, II, III are false
D. None of them are false
Answer: D

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NO.6 Select the correct statement;
A. Testing processes are interconnected and related to activities like requirements
engineering, software development, etc.
B. Testing tasks cannot be concurrent.
C. Requirements engineering and software testing are two isolated activities.
D. Testing activities / processes do not have to be aligned to the chosen software
development lifecycle model.
Answer: A

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NO.7 Select the correct statement related to test techniques;
I. Software program should be running to perform dynamic analysis
II. Software program should be running to perform static analysis
III. Control flow analysis is part of dynamic analysis
IV. Data flow analysis is part of static analysis
A. I, II true. III, IV false
B. I, III true. II, IV false
C. I, IV true. II, III false
D. I true. II, III, IV false
Answer: C

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NO.1 The assumption of homogeneity of variance is looking for the equivalence or group:
A. Means.
B. Medians
C. Standard Deviations.
D. Ranges
Answer: A

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NO.2 In the Variable View, if you have a series of variables that share the same category coding
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A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.3 When you read data stored in an Excel file via File...Open data, you may need to specify
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A. Read variable names from the first row of data
B. Read a Range of cells
C. Specify the Worksheet to read/import
D. Number of Worksheets to read/import
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.4 Which operations are available from the File menu? (Select all that apply)
A. Open and Save data files
B. Print the contents of the active IBM SPSS Statistics window
C. Exit IBM SPSS Statistics
D. Run the FREQUENCIES procedure
Answer: A

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NO.5 When performing CROSSTABS can control variables be added to the procedure?
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B. Yes, by placing the variables in the column box.
C. Yes, by placing the variables in the layer box
D. No, control variables cannot be incorporated in a cross tabulation
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Exam Name: Pegasystems (PRPC v5.5 Certified Senior System Architect Exam)
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Total Q&A: 173 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 Why does PRPC create a Data-Agent-Queue instance when you create a Rule-Agent-Queue instance?
(Choose One)
A. Data-Agent-Queue instances are not locked so they allow you to control the behavior of Agents in a
locked RuleSet at runtime
B. Data-Agent-Queue instances are created by PRPC to support the new Queue For Agent functionality
which was provided since PRPC v5.4
C. Data-Agent-Queue instances are created automatically by PRPC whenever the Queue-For-Agent
method is used in an activity step to queue work for the Agent
D. Data-Agent-Queue instances are data instances which are used by the Queue Manager functionality to
allow for concurrent access to a queued piece of work by agents running on multiple nodes
E. Data-Agent-Queue instances represent the master definition of PRPC agents and have been
deprecated as of PRPC v5.4 in favor of using Rule-Agent-Queue
Answer: A

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NO.2 A customer implementation necessitates the usage of Message-driven beans. Which of these
platforms can the solution be deployed on? (Choose Two)
A. JBoss (EAR Deployment)
B. WebLogic (WAR Deployment)
C. WebSphere (EAR Deployment)
D. Tomcat (WAR Deployment)
E. All of the above
Answer: A,C

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NO.3 When a rule executes what is really executed.? (Choose One)
A. XML which is stored in the BLOB
B. Java code which is compiled from the XML stored in the BLOB
C. A class file which is stored in the BLOB
D. A serialized java object which is stored in the BLOB
Answer: B

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NO.4 What four steps must be taken to unit test a connector within a flow when the target interface/system is
not yet available? (Choose Four)
A. Create a Simulation activity
B. Set the connector to simulate in the Simulation data instance and specify the activity
C. Use Tracer and set a breakpoint
D. Define a Connect Simulation instance
E. Test the flow with simulation enabled
F. Create a new Integrator task
Answer: A,B,D,E

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NO.5 Which statements in regards to commits in PRPC are false? (Choose Two)
A. All database updates require that the requestor holds a lock on the object
B. The system performs commits automatically when processing for a submit operation of a flow action
completes, for both connector and local flow actions
C. Commit operations can trigger the execution of Declare-Trigger rules
D. Assuming distributed transaction is not configured and the deferred operation list contains operations
for only one database. When the system commits all deferred operations for the requestor, if any of the
writes fail, they all fail
E. The deferred operations will be committed when you use the write-now option with the obj-save
method because this causes a commit to occur
Answer: A,E

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NO.6 Select the valid modes an Agent can have since PRPC 5.4? (Choose Three)
A. Normal
B. Legacy
C. Standard
D. Advanced
E. Modes are not required to be selected for Agents in PRPC 5.4
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.7 Which statement best describes the Rules Assembly Cache? (Choose One)
A. The Rules Assembly Cache is a disk based cache that stores the generated XML and resulting class
files, post compilation since what finally gets executed is XML, not java code
B. The Rules Assembly Cache is a memory based cache that reduces PegaRULES database traffic as it
contains copies of rules recently accessed or recently updated by developers
C. The Rules Assembly Cache is a memory based cache that allows Process Commander to rapidly
identify compiled Java CLASS files that correspond to compiled and assembled rules
D. The Rules Assembly Cache is a memory based cache used by PRPC to feed the Instance Cache as
the Instance Cache is the instance of a given rule for which code has been generated
Answer: C

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NO.8 A PRPC installation has 3 nodes. An Agent rule has a single agent listed which takes data from an
external system. It would cause contention issues if it ran on more than one node. What is the
recommended way to ensure the agent only runs in one cluster? (Choose One)
A. Delete the Agent schedule on two nodes
B. Disable the Agent schedule on two of the nodes, either from the Agent Schedule rule form or using the
System Management Application
C. Disable the master agent on two nodes
D. In your Agent activity call a decision table to verify host name of the system (application)
Answer: B

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NO.9 What does the rollback method do? (Choose Two)
A. Cancels/Withdraws any pending obj-save and obj-delete methods
B. Rollback is not supported by PRPC when using a WAR deployment. The only way you can do a
rollback is by using the compensating actions method
C. Rollback is a way to rollback an object to a previous state using the History instance for a work object
D. Rolls back the deferred stack of operations for the specified page
Answer: A,D

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NO.10 PRPC can be installed using a WAR or EAR configuration. Which of the following does NOT require an
EAR configuration? (Choose One)
A. JMS message services support need to be provided
B. Support for two-phase commits is required
C. Support for EJB services need to be provided
D. J2EE security is required
E. JSR-94 support is required
Answer: E

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NO.11 Which one of the following statements is true regarding the PRPC threading model? (Choose One)
A. PRThreads are similar to Java threads and the types include STANDARD, DEVELOPER, and
OPENPORTAL
B. A PRThread is essentially a namespace which allows a Requestor to have separate clipboard pages
that do not interact with each other
C. Multiple PRThreads can be executed concurrently depending on whether multi-threading is enabled
D. All of the above
Answer: B

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NO.12 Which methods of service integration within PRPC requires the configuration of a listener? (Choose
Two)
A. BPEL
B. HTTP
C. JMS
D. MQ
E. dotNet
Answer: C,D

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NO.13 Which statement is true regarding how locking works with covers? (Choose One)
A. By default, the cover does not get locked when you open a covered object, but this is configurable
B. By default, the cover is locked when you open a covered object, but this is configurable
C. The cover must always be locked when working on the cover or one of its covered work objects
because updates occur on the cover throughout processing of the covered work objects
D. Cover object locking is identical to that of other work objects, in that it is only locked when it is opened
by a requestor
Answer: B

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NO.14 Which of the following are virtual memory based caches? (Choose Three)
A. Rule Cache
B. Rules Assembly Cache
C. Rule Resolution Cache
D. Lookup List Cache
E. Static Content Cache
F. Dictionary Cache
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.15 What does the system pulse do? (Choose Three)
A. It is used by PRPC to synchronize changes to the Data-Agent-Schedule instances whenever a
Rule-Agent-Queue instance is modified
B. It invalidates rule caches on a per node basis using entries in the pr_sys_updatescache table
C. It processes changes to the Lucene indexes that support full text searches
D. It synchronizes the lookup list cache deletions and any rule-file-deletes
E. It is used by PRPC to send out information to PAL on a weekly basis so that performance analysis can
be performed over a period of time
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.16 PegaRULES is installed on a multi-node system, and a copy of the various caches is stored on each
node. Each of these nodes must be updated with rule changes. Which functionality in PRPC manages the
update process? (Choose One)
A. Node-Pulse
B. Rule Cache
C. System-Update
D. System-Pulse
Answer: D

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NO.17 What determines which table a work object is persisted to? (Choose One)
A. The Data-Admin-DB-Table record for the class group the work object belongs to and the access group
the current user belongs to
B. The RuleSet the class belongs, and Data-Admin-DB-Table definitions
C. The Data-Admin-DB-Table record associated to the class group the work object belongs to
D. The RuleSet the class belongs to
Answer: C

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NO.18 What purpose and effect does the Obj-Refresh-and-Lock method have? (Choose One)
A. It has no effect if a lock is held and has not expired
B. It will reacquire a lock and will always refresh the contents of the object from the Database
C. If the lock is not held, the method will acquire a lock and always replace the step page contents with
the current values from the database
D. This method has been deprecated as of PRPC 5.3 in support of the Obj-Browse method which handles
refresh and locking automatically
E. This method is highly efficient and will only refresh the object if the content on the clipboard is older
than the current state in the database and will also force lockthe object regardless ofholds the lock
Answer: A

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NO.19 Where can you view the contents of the Rule Instance Cache? (Choose One)
A. Using the SMA you can view the contents of the instance cache which are displayed in the form of an
Excel file
B. Using the Developer Portal you can view the contents of the instance cache which are displayed in the
form of an excel file and is accessed from the tools > instance cache menu
C. By viewing the XML files from the TEMPDIR\PRGenJava\XML directory
D. By viewing the XML files from the pzInsKey column by using JDBC code
Answer: A

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NO.20 The BLOB is stored in the pzPVStream column of a table and contains the data associated with the
instance. Which two statements are false? (Choose Two)
A. Since it is a column in a table in a database, you can extract the BLOB and use it in another system
B. The BLOB contains the same clear text xml you see when clicking the rule data or the View XML option
in the clipboard
C. The PzPVStream
can be eliminated by use of simple tables (those without embedded pages and
page lists)
D. The BLOB enables a single table to store complex data structures that would normally require multiple
tables in a normalized database
Answer: A,B

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Total Q&A: 108 Questions and Answers
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NO.1 Which three types of file are contained in the folder "skin/" in Magento? (Choose THREE.)
A. CSS
B. Image
C. JavaScript
D. Layout
E. Template
F. Translate
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.2 Which two of the following code samples contain correct XML code for adding style.css to a
page? (Choose TWO.)
A. <action method= "add"><stylesheet>css/styles.css</stylesheet></action>
B. <action method="addCss"><stylesheet>css/styles.css</stylesheet></action>
C. <action method="addltem"><name>css/styles.css</name></action>
D. <action method= "addltem"><type>css</type><name> css/styles.css </name></action>
E. <action method="addltem" ><type>skin_css</ type><name> css/styles.css</name></action>
Answer: B,E

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NO.3 In order to display a custom design on a category landing page for a set number of days, you
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A. XML
B. Admin Panel
C. CSS
D. Block
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which four of the following page elements can be updated from the Magento Admin in
System-> Configuration-> Design? (Choose FOUR.)
A. Breadcrumb Separator
B. Copyright
C. Favicon
D. Logo
E. Navigation
F. Page Title
G. Top Links
Answer: B,C,D,F

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NO.5 To configure a category to display a set of "Shop By" filters, what is the correct option to set in
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A. "Is Anchor" set to "Yes"
B. "Show Filters" set to "Yes"
C. "Category Links" set to "No"
D. "Is Active" set to "No"
Answer: A

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NO.6 Where can you assign a root category for a new store in your Magento installation?
A. Global
B. Website
C. Store
D. Store View
Answer: C

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NO.7 What is the function of the attribute output= "to Html" when applied to a <block> tag?
A. Renders a block without any other explicit calls
B. Specifies the sequence of blocks on the page
C. Marks a block as a structural block
D. Marks a block as a content block
Answer: A

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A. app/frontend/base/my_package/my_theme/template/catalogsearch/form.mini.phtml
B. app/design/frontend/base/default/template/customsearch/form.mini.phtml
C. app/design/frontend/my_theme/my_package/template/catalogsearch/custom.form.mini.phtml
D. app/design/frontend/my_package/my_theme/template/catalogsearch/form.mini.phtml
E. app/frontend/default/my_theme/customsearch/form.mini.phtml
Answer: D

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NO.1 Explain how the above mentioned report may differ from a report that you produce for the
project manager, who is a test specialist Select TWO items from the following options that can be
used to report to the project manager and would not be included in a report to senior management.
1 credit
A. Show details on effort spent
B. List of all outstanding defects with their priority and severity
C. Give product risk status
D. Show trend analysis
E. State recommendations for release
Answer: A,B

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NO.2 You are about to release a test progress report to a senior manager, who is not a test specialist.
Which of the following topics should NOT be included in the test progress report? 1 credit
A. Product risks which have been mitigated and those which are outstanding.
B. Recommendations for taking controlling actions
C. Status compared against the started exit criteria
D. Detailed overview of the risk-based test approach being used to ensure the exit criteria to be
achieved
Answer: D

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NO.3 Considerable attention will be given in this project to defining exit criteria and on reporting
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credit
I. Total number of defects found
II. Percentage of test cases executed
III. Total test effort planned versus total actual test effort spent
IV. Defect trend (number of defects found per test run over time
A.(i) and (ii)
B.(i) and (iv)
C.(ii) and (iii)
D.(ii) and (iv)
Answer: D

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NO.4 A test log is one of the documents that need to be produced in this domain in order to provide
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A. Level of test execution automation
B. Test level
C. Regulatory requirements
D. Experience level of testers
Answer: D

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NO.5 Since the system is in the medical domain and therefore in the safety critical area, testing
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THREE measures that would typically be part of the test approach in this domain and which are not
always applicable in other domains! 1 credit
A. High level of documentation
B. Failure Mode and Effect Analysis (FMEA) sessions
C. Traceability to requirements
D. Non-functional testing
E. Master test planning
F. Test design techniques
G. Reviews
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.6 Identify the THREE types of formal peer reviews that can be recognized. 1 credit
A. Inspection
B. Management review
C. Walkthrough
D. Audit
E. Technical review
F. Informal review
G. Assessment
Answer: A,C,E

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NO.7 Consider the typical objectives of testing. Which of the following metrics can be used to
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A. Average number of days between defect discovery and resolution
B. Percentage of requirements covered
C. Lines of code written per developer per day
D. Percentage of test effort spent on regression testing
Answer: B

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addressed in the test plan? 1 credit
A. Availability
B. Safety
C. Portability
D. Reliability
Answer: C

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NO.1 In the value for the latitude of origin in a projection tile is modified, making the value less negative
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A. north
B. south
C. east
D. west
Answer: B

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NO.2 When rematching geocoding results, a user notices that E St is being interpreted as East St. How
should a user resolve this issue for future geocoding?
A. remove the entry defining E to mean east in the geocoding XML files
B. recreate the address locator with new reference data
C. create a composite address locator where E is not recognized as east
D. change E to east in the input table to be geocoded before geocoding
Answer: C

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NO.3 An ArcGIS user is working with a composite address locator that consists of the following:
-Citywide Address Locator -Regional Address Locator -Nationwide Address Locator
How does a composite address locator work if no selection criteria are specified? (Choose two)
A. searches all locators in sequence
B. searches the largest address locator first
C. searches the smallest address locator first
D. searches until an address is found
E. searches the locator with the closest zone
Answer: B,D

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NO.4 Refer to the exhibits.
An ArcGIS user is attempting to create a relationship class between the two tables shown in the exhibit
using POSTAL_CODE and Zip_Code as the origin primary key and destination foreign keys, respectively.
However when the user tries to set the keys Zip_Code does not appear in the drop-down list of candidate
keys
What should the user do to successfully create the relationship class?
A. change the relationship type from non attributed to attributed
B. make sure both tables are in the same geodatabase
C. create data type compatible key fields
D. move both tables to the same feature dataset
Answer: B

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NO.5 An ArcGIS user created a geoprocessing script in which the output layer ¯ s sy m bo l ogy p r ope rt y i s se t t o
an existing layer file. The user intends to share the tool with another ArcGIS user.
How can the user share the script tool while maintaining the symbology in the output layer?
A. Share the script tool while the sumbology layer file embedded in it
B. Publish the script tool as a geoprocessing service to ArcGIS Server
C. Distribute the Toolshare folder containing the script tool and related data
D. Upload the script tool as a model to an FTP site
Answer: B

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NO.6 An ArcGlS user plans to distribute a series of map documents where the amount of time the map file
can be viewed is limited.
Which format should the user create to specify a timeout period for these maps?
A. .mpk
B. .ipk
C. .pmf
D. .msd
Answer: D

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NO.7 An ArcGIS user runs the Central Feature geoprocessing tool on a polygon feature class. The output
feature is far north of the center of the feature class
Why is the output feature off center of the feature class?
A. There are more polygons in the northern part of the feature class
B. The polygons in the northern part of the feature class are larger
C. The feature class is not in the same promotion as the data frame
D. A weight field is not specified
Answer: D

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NO.8 A user wants to connect new laterals to supply water to newly built houses. What edge type supports
this function.?
A. an edge between two junctions
B. a complex edge
C. a subtype of edge
D. a simple edge
Answer: D

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NO.9 A water utility company had received calls from several customers complaining of low water pressure.
Using a geometric network representing the water network, how can an ArcGIS user determine the most
likely location of the problem?
A. place junction flags on each customer water meter and use the Find Common Ancestors trace task
B. place junction flags on each customer water meter and use the Find Disconnected trace task
C. place a junction barrier on each customer water meter and use the Trace Upstream trace task
D. place a junction barrier on each customer water meter and use the Find Path upstream trace task
Answer: A

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NO.10 An ArcGIS user receives two shapefiles that are defined with the same projection and represent
features in the same study area. When they are displayed together in ArcMap, the difference of their
locations in coordinate space is so large that they are barely visible when viewed at their full extent.
How can the user determine whether the projections of the shapefiles are correctly defined?
A. by comparing the shapefiles to a correctly projected dataset that has a large enough extent to
encompass the study area
B. by systematically changing the spatial reference of the data frame until the shapefiles correctly align
C. by using the Spatial Adjustment toolbar to move the shapefiles to the same part of coordinate space
D. by examining the metadata of both shapefiles to determine the projection processes applied to the
data1
Answer: A

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NO.11 An image that is displayed as draped over a digital elevation model (DEM) in ArcGlobe appears to be
overly pixilated.
Which property should be changed to make the image appear smoother?
A. stretch type
B. resampling method
C. contrast setting
D. unit conversion
Answer: C

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NO.12 A taster contains pixels with decimal values.
Which method is used to round raster pixel values to the nearest whole number?
A. use the Round Up tool (Spatial Analyst), then the Round Down tool (Spatial Analyst)
B. use the Round Down tool (Spatial Analyst), then the Round Up tool (Spatial Analyst)
C. use the Plus tool (Spatial Analyst) to add 1, then the Minus tool (Spatial Analyst) to subtract 0.5
D. use the Plus tool (Spatial Analyst) to add 0.5, then the int tool (Spatial Analyst) to truncate to the
nearest integer
Answer: B

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NO.13 Using street data for a large metropolitan area, which analysis method shows the nearest hospital to a
traffic accident?
A. closest facility
B. route
C. find nearest
D. least-cost path
Answer: A

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NO.14 Refer to the exhibit.
Based on the exhibit shown, what has the author of this map done to improve drawing performance?
A. created annotation
B. applied simple symbology
C. generalized features
D. set scale-dependent rendering
Answer: D

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NO.15 Using the Spatial Analyst IDW (Inverse Distance Weighted) tool an ArcGIS user interpolates a point
feature class to a raster. The user notices that some high point values near the edge of the feature class
seem to have a dramatic effect on the output. This occurs even in areas that are far from the high edge
values
Which two parameters should the user consider changing in the IDW tool? (Choose two)
A. z-value field
B. search radius
C. power
D. output cell size
E. weight
Answer: D,E

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Exam Code: S90-20A
Exam Name: SOA Certified Professional (SOA Security Lab)
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Total Q&A: 30 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 Service A exchanges messages with Service B multiple times during the same runtime service activity.
Communication between Services A and B has been secured using transport-layer security. With each
service request message sent to Service B (1A. IB), Service A includes an
X.509 certificate, signed by an external Certificate Authority (CA). Service B validates the certificate by
retrieving the public key of the CA (2A. 2B) and verifying the digital signature of the
X.509 certificate. Service B then performs a certificate revocation check against a separate external CA
repository (3A, 3B). No intermediary service agents reside between Service A and Service B.
To fulfill a new security requirement, Service A needs to be able to verify that the response message sent
by Service B has not been modified during transit. Secondly, the runtime performance between Services
A and B has been unacceptably poor and therefore must be improved without losing the ability to verify
Service A's security credentials. It has been determined that the latency is being caused by redundant
security processing carried out by Service B.
Which of the following statements describes a solution that fulfills these requirements?
A. Apply the Trusted Subsystem pattern to introduce a utility service that performs the security processing
instead of Service B. The utility service can verify the security credentials of request messages from
Service A and digitally sign messages sent to Service A to enable verification of message integrity.
Furthermore, the utility service can perform the verification of security credentials submitted by Service A
only once per runtime service activity. After the first messageexchange, it can issue a SAML token to
Service A that gets stored within the current session. Service A can then use this session-based token
with subsequent message exchange. Because SAML tokens have a very small validity period (in contrast
to X.509 certificates), there is no need to perform a revocation check with every message exchange.
B. Service B needs to be redesigned so that it performs the verification of request messages from Service
A only for the first message exchange during the runtime service activity. Thereafter, it can issue a SAML
token to Service A that gets stored within the current session. Service A then uses this session-based
token with subsequent message exchanges. Because SAML tokens have a very small validity period (in
contrast to X.509 certificates), there is no need to perform a revocation check with every message
exchange.
C. WS-SecurityPolicy transport binding assertions can be used to improve performance via
transport-layer security The use of symmetric keys can keep the encryption and decryption overhead to a
minimum, which will further reduce the latency between Service A and Service B. By encrypting the
messages, attackers cannot modify message contents, so no additional actions for integrity verification
are needed.
D. The Data Origin Authentication pattern can be applied together with the Service Perimeter Guard
pattern to establish a perimeter service that can verify incoming request messages sent to Service B and
to filter response messages sent to Service A. The repository containing the verification information about
the Certificate Authorities can be replicated in the trust domain of the perimeter service. When access is
requested by Service A, the perimeter service evaluates submitted security credentials by checking them
against the locally replicated repository. Furthermore, it can encrypt messages sent to Service A by
Service B. and attach a signed hash value.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Service Consumer A sends a request message to Service A (1) after which Service A retrieves financial
data from Database A (2). Service A then sends a request message with the retrieved data to Service B
(3). Service B exchanges messages with Service C (4) and Service D (5), which perform a series of
calculations on the data and return the results to Service A. Service A uses these results to update
Database A (7) and finally sends a response message to Service Consumer A (8). Component B has
direct, independent access to Database A and is fully trusted by Database A. Both Component B and
Database A reside within Organization A. Service Consumer A and Services A, B, C, and D are external to
the organizational boundary of Organization A.
Component B is considered a mission critical program that requires guaranteed access to and fast
response from Database A. Service A was recently the victim of a denial of service attack, which resulted
in Database A becoming unavailable for extended periods of time (which further compromised
Component B). Additionally, Services B, C, and D have repeatedly been victims of malicious intermediary
attacks, which have further destabilized the performance of Service A.
How can this architecture be improved to prevent these attacks?
A. A utility service is created to encapsulate Database A and to assume responsibility for authenticating all
access to the database by Service A and any other service consumers. Due to the mission critical
requirements of Component B, the utility service further contains logic that strictly limits the amount of
concurrent requests made to Database A from outside the organizational boundary. The Data
Confidentiality and Data Origin Authentication patterns are applied to all message exchanged within the
external service composition in order to establish message-layer security.
B. Service Consumer A generates a private/public key pair and sends this public key and identity
information to Service A. Service A generates its own private/public key pair and sends it back to Service
Consumer A. Service Consumer A uses the public key of Service A to encrypt a randomly generated
session key and then sign the encrypted session key with the private key. The encrypted, signed session
key is sent to Service A. Now, this session key can be used for secure message-layer communication
between Service Consumer A and Service A. The Service Perimeter Guard pattern is applied to establish
a perimeter service that encapsulates Database A in order to authenticate all external access requests.
C. Services B, C, and D randomly generate Session Key K, and use this key to encrypt request and
response messages with symmetric encryption. Session Key K is further encrypted itself asymmetrically.
When each service acts as a service consumer by invoking another service, it decrypts the encrypted
Session Key K and the invoked service uses the key to decrypt the encrypted response. Database A is
replicated so that only the replicated version of the database can be accessed by Service A and other
external service consumers.
D. The Direct Authentication pattern is applied so that when Service Consumer A submits security
credentials, Service A will be able to evaluate the credentials in order to authenticate the request
message. If the request message is permitted, Service A invokes the other services and accesses
Database A. Database A is replicated so that only the replicated version of the database can be accessed
by Service A and other external service consumers.
Answer: A

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