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Exam Code: HP2-B62
Exam Name: HP (HP Imaging and Printing Management and Security Solutions-Sales)

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NO.1 What is accomplished by segmenting customers into different technology adoption categories.?
A. It builds strategic analysis tools for feature development.
B. It encourages you to treat each type of customer differently in order to satisfy each customer ¯ s un i que
needs.
C. It creates awareness of industries with specific government regulations.
D. It allows support organizations to track customer needs.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which expense category grows regardless of economic conditions?
A. IT security spending
B. facilities spending
C. marketing and advertising expenditures
D. hardware purchasing
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which statements represent imaging and print management priorities? (Select three.)
A. implementing job level tracking and audit capabilities
B. controlling the devices and drivers
C. assuring document integrity
D. implementing rules-based printing
E. tracking print expenses
F. implementing encryption
G. implementing authentication and secure release printing
Answer: A,D,E

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NO.4 Why should customers care about true office printing costs?
A. Customers typically look at the cost of supplies and hardware, but do not consider the IT costs.
B. Customers typically look at the cost of IT and supplies, but do not consider the hardware costs.
C. Customers typically look at the cost of hardware and IT, but do not consider the cost of supplies.
D. Customers typically look at the cost of hardware, but do not consider the cost of IT or supplies.
Answer: C

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NO.5 Print management makes up which percentage of true office printing costs?
A. 10%
B. 25%
C. 30%
D. 45%
Answer: D

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Exam Code: HP2-B76
Exam Name: HP (HP Imaging and Printing Technical Fundamentals)

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NO.1 Which feature from Job Retention do you use to make prints, without wasting paper through document
errors'?
A. Quick Copy
B. Stored Job
C. Secure Printing
D. Proof and Hold
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which printer driver language uses HPGL commands while printing a bounding box?
A. PCL5
B. PostScript
C. PCL3
D. PCL6
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which HP technology enhances printer performance and minimizes network traffic?
A. RIP first/transmit later
B. sends once / RIP once
C. transmits once / RIP once
D. transmit once/RIP triple
Answer: C

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NO.4 Prescribe is a common language of which vendor?
A. IBM
B. HP
C. Adobe
D. Kyocera
Answer: D

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NO.5 What is an advantage of PCL 6 over PCL 5c?
A. PCL 6 supports color printing and PCL 5c does not.
B. PCL 6 is compatible with all PCL printers and PCL 5c is not
C. PCL 6 can use object-based commands instead of only HPGL commands.
D. PCL 6 has improved paper handling functions
Answer: C

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NO.6 What happens after a Proof and Hold job is sent to an HP Color LaserJet.?
A. It remains on the hard disk until the printer is switched off.
B. It remains on the hard disk, even when the printer is switched off.
C. It remains in the memory of the printer.
D. it is deleted from the printer.
Answer: C

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NO.7 What is the most time consuming part of the laser printing electronic process?
A. I/O process
B. PS process
C. PCL process
D. page rendering
Answer: D

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NO.8 How do you print a job using the Stored Job option?
A. use the driver selection for printing stored jobs
B. use HP Web Jetadmin
C. use the user name you selected on the control panel to view the Stored Job option
D. use the control panel to select the stored job for printing
Answer: D

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NO.9 A graphic arts business is creating images for printing on an offset press. The business is using an HP
Pinter for printing the final proofs. EPS files are often sent to the business to be included in the images
Printed.
Which driver should be used?
A. PCL6
B. PCL5
C. PCL5e
D. PostScript
Answer: D

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NO.10 What is the purpose of the Quick Copy feature?
A. to allow the image to be viewed on the PC prior to printing
B. to allow the job to be printed on multiple printers simultaneously
C. to allow the user to verify output prior to printing all copies
D. to allow additional copies to be made at the printer without resending the printing job
Answer: D

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Exam Code: HP2-K20
Exam Name: HP (Supporting HP StorageWorks P2000 Solutions)

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NO.1 Which statement is correct regarding the features of a P2000 G3 after an upgrade from a MSA2000 G2
storage array?
A. Asynchronous replication can be used in single-controller configurations.
B. The backend operates at 3Gb/s SAS speed.
C. Two 4Gb/s Fibre Channel ports per controller can be used.
D. The snapshot maximum is 255.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which RAID level provides the best random mix I/O performance?
A. 3
B. 5
C. 10
D. 50
Answer: C

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NO.3 What is the minimum number of disks required to create a RAID 50 vdisk?
A. 4
B. 6
C. 8
D. 12
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which transport protocol is used to connect a P2000 G3 MSA to a D270 disk enclosure.?
A. iSCSI
B. Fibre Channel
C. SAS
D. SATA
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which type of hot spare disks are used in a P2000 G3 storage system? (Select two)
A. pre-allocated
B. global
C. multi-purpose
D. generic
E. local
Answer: B,D

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Exam Code: HP2-Z13
Exam Name: HP (Selling HP IP Telephony Solutions)

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NO.1 A customer wants to ensure their network is prepared to handle voice traffic. Which service should you
offer them?
A. Intel traffic Analysis
B. Telephony Administration Training
C. Quality of Service Diagnostics
D. Voice Readiness Assessment
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which opportunities are currently targeted by the VCX.? (Select two.)
A. customers who want to purchase IP phones only
B. customers with collaboration needs
C. PBX replacement
D. multi-tenant/shared office spaces
Answer: B,C

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NO.3 What are benefits of contact centers? (Select two.)
A. allow remote employees to use an IP phone over the Internet
B. provide for centralized management for multi-site VCX implementations
C. integrate with other applications to provide screen pops
D. support both inbound and outbound calling
Answer: D

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Exam Code: HP0-J45
Exam Name: HP (Designing and Implementing HP P4000 SAN Solutions)

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NO.1 At which level in HP P4000 SAN Solutions is RAID configured?
A. volume
B. cluster
C. management group
D. storage node
Answer: D

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NO.2 You are planning to integrate a P4800 BladeSystem SAN in a customer's environment. What is the
maximum number of uplink ports that can be connected to the network?
A. two 1GbE and four 10GbE ports
B. five 1GbE ports
C. eight 10GbE ports
D. ten 1GbE ports
Answer: C

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NO.3 During a presentation of a SAN/IQ solution, the customer focuses on the application-managed snapshot
functionality and integration in their Data Protector solution using Zero-Downtime-Backup. The customer
is using a Microsoft environment and needs a solution to shorten their Recovery Point Objective for their
SQL database servers. Which component acts as a requestor in this environment?
A. MS SQL
B. VSS Provider
C. Data Protector
D. P4000 SAN
Answer: C

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NO.4 When planning an installation of a new SAS Starter solution, how many network cables are
recommended to configure the P4000 G2 solution correctly.?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8
Answer: C

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NO.5 A customer has two data centers and needs 3.2TB of space in his P4300 environment. Data should be
mirrored across both data centers. How many nodes are needed to fulfill this requirement?
A. 2 nodes
B. 3 nodes
C. 4 nodes
D. 6 nodes
Answer: C

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Exam Code: HP0-S32
Exam Name: HP (HP BladeSystem Networking 2011)

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NO.1 Which spanning tree protocol is the most appropriate in a VLAN-aware, non-proprietary network
implementation?
A. RSTP
B. PVST+
C. MSTP
D. STP
Answer: C

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NO.2 What are valid reasons for implementing VLANs? (Select two.)
A. to segregate traffic by resource or application needs
B. to provide enhanced name resolution
C. to reduce subnet cost options
D. to minimize the effect of broadcast traffic on hosts
E. to support multipathing
Answer: A, D

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NO.3 Which tasks are used to define a vNet for Virtual Connect Ethernet? (Select three.)
A. Assign only one network per server NIC.
B. Assign one or multiple networks per server NIC.
C. Optionally set the native VLAN.
D. Define the server profile.
E. Specify VLAN names/IDs.
F. Select unassigned uplinks.
Answer: A, D, F

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NO.4 On a Cisco switch, what does the portfast setting do?
A. eliminates auto-negotiation delays with 10GbE ports
B. ensures the link is at maximum speed regardless of configuration
C. causes BPDUs to be blocked if sensed
D. eliminates delays inherent in RSTP/MSTP synchronization
Answer: D

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NO.5 What does trunk refer to in industry-standard terminology?
A. aggregated switch links
B. tagged VLAN port (802.1Q)
C. tagged VLAN port plus link aggregation
D. Shared Uplink Set plus Connection Mode Auto
Answer: A

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NO.6 The IEEE 802.1AX (802.3ad) Link Aggregation Control Protocol is a Layer 2 protocol. What is its
function?
A. dynamically identifies link speeds regardless of media type
B. forms port trunks consisting of two or more uplink ports
C. identifies the VLAN to which frames transmitted on a link or port trunk belong
D. advertises information that describes and identifies devices
Answer: B

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NO.7 What is used to achieve Fibre Channel data transfer?
A. channel mesh
B. packets
C. tunnels
D. frames
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which industry-standard protocols are supported on Virtual Connect Ethernet uplinks? (Select three.)
A. IEEE 802.1 AX (802.3ad) Link Layer Discovery Protocol (LLDP)
B. IEEE 802.1w-2001 Rapid Spanning Tree (RSTP)
C. IEEE 802.1p Quality of Service (QoS)
D. IEEE 802.1 AX (802.3ad) Link Aggregation Protocol
E. IEEE 802.1Q VLAN tagging
F. IEEE 802.3af-2003 Power over Ethernet (PoE)
Answer: A, D, E

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NO.9 Which is a unique feature of a virtual switch?
A. port mirroring for packet analysis
B. VLAN segmentation at the port level
C. no packet forwarding (routing) between VLANs
D. maximum of 1016 ports per switch
Answer: D

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NO.10 What are the requirements for link aggregation using LACP? (Select three.)
A. Links must have the same tagged VLANs assigned.
B. Links must be the same speed.
C. Links must use the same media type.
D. Links must share a boundary.
E. Links must be full-duplex.
F. Links must be fiber connections.
Answer: B, D, E

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NO.11 What is considered a trunk in a Cisco switching environment?
A. aggregated switch links
B. tagged VLAN port (802.1Q)
C. tagged VLAN port plus link aggregation
D. Shared Uplink Set plus Connection Mode Auto
Answer: B

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NO.12 Which port is the lowest-cost path to the spanning tree root bridge?
A. root port
B. defined root port
C. designated port
D. forwarding port
Answer: A

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NO.13 What does N_Port ID virtualization do?
A. provides an abstraction layer between the server HBAs and the SAN
B. provides interoperability among third-party SAN device manufacturers
C. provides connectivity between the Virtual Connect module and the Onboard Administrator
D. enables a single HBA port to register multiple, unique WWNs within a fabric
Answer: D

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NO.14 Which statements are true about port VLAN memberships? (Select three.)
A. A port can be an untagged member of multiple VLANs.
B. A port must be a member of at least one VLAN.
C. A port must be a tagged member of only one VLAN.
D. A port can be an untagged member of only one VLAN.
E. A port can be a tagged member of multiple VLANs.
F. A port can be a tagged member of one VLAN and an untagged member of multiple VLANs.
Answer: B, D, E

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NO.15 What are Virtual Connect Enterprise Manager features? (Select three.)
A. is licensed per enclosure
B. is licensed with the Virtual Connect Ethernet module
C. is embedded on the Virtual Connect Ethernet module
D. can administer up to 256,000 network addresses
E. can manage a single domain of up to four enclosures
F. can administer up to 16,000 servers
Answer: A, D, F

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NO.16 In a switching environment with redundant links, which technology is required for proper operation?
A. VLANs
B. Cisco vPC
C. loop prevention
D. dynamic routing
Answer: C

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NO.17 What are valid FlexNIC bandwidth selections? (Select three.)
A. Preferred
B. Assigned
C. Static
D. Custom
E. Dynamic
F. Auto
Answer: A, D, F

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NO.18 What is considered a Virtual Connect domain in Virtual Connect Enterprise Manager?
A. a maximum of 1,000 enclosures
B. a maximum of 16,000 servers
C. from 1 to 4 enclosures
D. 250 Virtual Connect Manager domains
Answer: C

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NO.19 How can a tagged packet be processed for QoS when it is received on an inbound interface? (Select
three.)
A. The marked priority level can be changed to enforce predetermined classification levels.
B. The packet can be scheduled for a queue based on the marked 802.1p priority level.
C. The packet can be moved to a more secure VLAN and its priority remarked.
D. The packet can be scheduled for a queue based on a preset policy.
E. The packet can be discarded or rerouted if it does not match a set policy.
F. The packet can be prevented switch traversal for a predetermined penalty period.
Answer: A, B, D

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NO.20 You are configuring Virtual Connect Flex-10 10Gb Ethernet modules with Flex-10 server adapters.
What is an important network design consideration?
A. The Virtual Connect Flex-10 10Gb Ethernet module does not enforce VLAN isolation between
FlexNICs of the same server LAN on Motherboard (LOM).
B. If the Flex-10 server adapters are implemented as mezzanine cards, the Virtual Connect Flex-10 10Gb
Ethernet module requires all FlexNICs be configured for the same speed.
C. The Virtual Connect Manager will enforce physical port isolation by not allowing FlexNICs of the same
server port to connect to the same Virtual Connect network.
D. LACP trunking is not allowed between Virtual Connect uplink ports and infrastructure switch ports
located on different modules, even if within the same physical switch.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: HP0-M47
Exam Name: HP (HP Functional Testing 11.x Software)

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NO.1 What is created when you select Edit > Action > Split Action?
A. an independent action
B. a new shared object repository
C. an action fork
D. a new test
Answer: A

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NO.2 What happens when you import data using the DataTable.ImportSheet function?
A. Data is overwritten when column headers in Excel and the data table match.
B. Sheet1 in the Excel file is always imported.
C. Data will be appended to the data table.
D. A new column is added to the data table when column headers in Excel and the data table match.
Answer: A

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NO.3 What is configured with the Action Call Properties dialog box?
A. object repositories
B. test flow settings
C. test run properties
D. local data sheet iterations
Answer: D

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NO.4 When inserting a call to a reusable action, which two ways can the tester handle the data resources in
that action? (Select two.)
A. Have the new action refer to a read-only copy of the data in the original action.
B. Have the action get an empty set of data resources.
C. Delete the data.
D. Store an editable copy of the data in the new action.
E. Have the new action refer with write permissions to the copy of the data in the original action.
Answer: A,D

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NO.5 An HP QuickTest Professional instructor needs to take a sample test that was built in HP Application
Lifecycle Management to an off-site training facility. What is the simplest way to convert that test into a
portable format?
A. Use the Export to Portable feature to export the test with its object repository into XML format.
B. Use the Save Test with Resources feature for main test and do the same for the test that contains the
called reusable actions.
C. Use the Save Test with Resources feature.
D. Use the Export to Zip feature.
Answer: C

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NO.6 You have developed a functional test in HP QuickTest Professional and want to take advantage of
version control in HP Application Lifecycle Management. Which menu option should you use to put your
test in HP Application Lifecycle Management?
A. Save As
B. Create Version
C. Check-in
D. Save Test with Resources
Answer: A

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NO.7 In HP QuickTest Professional, what does the Managing Versions feature enable you to do.?
A. compare different test results
B. check out only the latest version of an asset
C. compare only the latest two versions of an asset
D. check in only the latest version of an asset
Answer: B

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NO.8 What is the purpose of the Data Table in a custom checkpoint?
A. to store output values and formulas
B. to compare headers
C. to access global values
D. to store input objects
Answer: A

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NO.9 HP QuickTest Professional 11 enables you record steps from which browser?
A. Chrome
B. Safari
C. Netscape
D. Firefox
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which Web testing capabilities have been added in HP QuickTest Professional 11? (Select three.)
A. Firefox Document Object Model access
B. Internet Explorer Developer Toolbar support
C. Event Identifiers that enable identification based on events associated to a Web object
D. Javascript code capability that enables Javascript code to be embedded in all loaded browser pages
E. Property Identifiers that enable identification based on properties associated to a Web object
F. Vbscript code capability that enables Vbscript code to run in specific browser pages
Answer: A,C,D

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Exam Code: HP3-C28
Exam Name: HP (Selling HP QuickPage and InCommand Solutions)

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NO.1 What is included in an HP QuickPage contract?
A. hardware, support services, supplies, and installation services
B. hardware, support services, supplies, and workflow assessment
C. support services, installation services, and supplies
D. hardware new and existing, support services, supplies, and installation services
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which HP contract offering gives the reseller complete control and uses their own contract?
A. HP Pay for Print
B. HP QuickPage
C. HP Smart Printing Services
D. HP Channel Led PPU
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which HP contract offering should you propose if the customer only needs to reduce costs on their HP
supplies?
A. HP Channel Led PPU
B. HP QuickPage
C. HP Pay for Print
D. HP Smart Print Services
Answer: B

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NO.4 What is the name of the HP environmental partner program?
A. HP Planet Earth Partner Program
B. HP World Green Partner Program
C. HP Planet Partner Program
D. HP Green Partner Program
Answer: C

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NO.5 What is an objective of contractual services?
A. to replace existing partner contracts
B. to enhance the portfolio of services HP partners can offer their customers
C. to replace contractual sales with transactional sales
D. to support HP partners in preparing complex contracts with their customers
Answer: B

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Exam Code: HP3-X10
Exam Name: HP (Servicing HP Essential Desktop Products)

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NO.1 Which memory configurations cannot be fully addressed by an HP PC running the 32-bit Windows 7
Home Premium operating system.?
A. 2048MB (1024MB x 2)
B. 2048MB (2048MB x 1)
C. 3072MB (3072MB x 1)
D. 4096MB (2048MB x 2)
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which tasks does the HP Support Assistant enable you to perform? (Select three.)
A. reinstalling the software image
B. connecting to the HP support agent
C. changing the boot order
D. viewing a computer's action history
E. clearing the BIOS passwords
F. scheduling periodic tune-ups
Answer: A,C,E

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Exam Code: HP0-M45
Exam Name: HP (HP BSM Platform and End User Management 9.x Software)

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NO.1 DRAG DROP
Click the Task button. Place the steps for creating a business application for BPM in the correct order.
Note: Some sub-tasks are omitted.
Answer:

NO.2 How are Service Level Management Reports created?
A. as offline reports running over aggregated data stored in the database
B. as online reports based on real-time data flowing into the BSM platform
C. as offline reports running over aggregated data stored in the database leveraging BPM and Real User
Monitor data only
D. as online reports based on real-time data flowing into the BSM platform from SiteScope, BPM and Real
User Monitor data
Answer: A

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NO.3 What information is stored in the BSM management database?
A. BSM Server names
B. changes of individual CIs
C. CI history
D. Business Process Insight information
Answer: A

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NO.4 In which ways can you run the BPM Setup? (Select two.)
A. menu-driven
B. silent
C. scripted
D. manual
Answer: B,D

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NO.5 Which component aggregates data and manages the RTSM?
A. Data Processing Server
B. Aggregation Server
C. Real User Monitor
D. Gateway Server
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which statements are true about Service Level Management Reports? (Select two.)
A. They show how well applications are behaving in comparison to the Service Health assigned KPIs.
B. They are custom reports, which are stored as part of the overall Service Report framework.
C. They show you how well actual service levels compare with business goals.
D. They give you a high-level view of the business and also early warning on potential problems.
E. They give you a high-level view of infrastructure performance only.
Answer: C,D

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NO.7 The colors displayed for a CI icon in Service Health represent a summary of interim status values for a
predefined duration. What is the default duration.?
A. 60 seconds
B. 120 seconds
C. 300 seconds
D. 600 seconds
Answer: C

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NO.8 You want a BPM Virtual User Generator script to monitor performance, availability and produce alerts
for transactions. What must you do to accomplish this?
A. Enable transaction breakdown in the Run-time Settings.
B. Always use correlation and fail the transaction if correlation fails.
C. Insert comments in the script to mark the start and end of the specific business process.
D. Ensure that each step of a script is contained within a transaction.
Answer: D

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NO.9 The Health Indicator component displays details regarding the Health Indicators that are used to
calculate and set the current status of a selected CI. Each Health Indicator's status and value are
displayed. What are the categories into which Health Indicators displayed by the component are
grouped?
A. Health Indicators that are impacted by KPIs and Health Indicators that are not impacted by any KPI
calculation
B. Health Indicators that are used to calculate KPIs and Health Indicators that are not used in any KPI
calculation
C. Health Indicators that are used to calculate CIs and Health Indicators that are not used in any CI
calculation
D. Health Indicators that are used to calculate internal KPIs and Health Indicators that are used to
calculate external KPIs
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which component runs the BSM applications and receives data samples from the data collector?
A. Data Processing Server
B. Diagnostic Server
C. Real User Monitor
D. Gateway Server
Answer: D

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Exam Code: HP0-M50
Exam Name: HP (HP BSM Operations Manager i 9.x Software)

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NO.1 What do event assignment rules enable you to do?
A. send events to connected servers, based on event filters
B. directly assign specific incoming event types to individual users
C. automate user group ownership for events matching a filter
D. configure the assignment of events to CIs and Event Type Indicators
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which statement is true about configuring custom actions? (Select two.)
A. You can modify message contents to increase usability.
B. You can run actions against a customizable set of CIs.
C. An operator can perform individual parameterizations of actions.
D. Any kind of batch, executable and URL action can be chosen.
E. The provided Groovy script will perform the requested action.
Answer: A,E

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NO.3 The OMi integration with Service Manager uses a Groovy Script Adapter as its integration type. When
configuring this connection, what needs to be edited in the Groovy script that is supplied by OMi?
A. Fully Qualified Domain Name of the Service Manager server
B. User credentials for a Service Manager user with administrative permissions
C. Web tier details in the DRILLDOWN_ROOT_PATH variable
D. Fully Qualified Domain Name of the HP BSM data processing server
Answer: C

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NO.4 When SiteScope is integrated with OMi, what information does SiteScope send asynchronously, directly
to OMi?
A. Events and Health Indicators, based on SiteScope test results
B. CI configuration details
C. KPI status, based on SiteScope test results
D. Performance results, based on SiteScope tests
Answer: A

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NO.5 In the OMi event browser, you want to help another operator by entering additional information for an
event that is owned by that operator. What should you do to accomplish this.?
A. Select event, select the Annotations tab, click the New Item asterisk icon to add an annotation, type in
the information, click Ok.
B. Select event, click Resolve button, select the Annotations tab, click the New Item asterisk icon to add
an annotation, type in the information, click Ok.
C. Select event, click Work on button, select the Annotations tab, click the New Item asterisk icon to add
an annotation, type in the information, click Ok.
D. Select event, click Reopen button, select the Annotations tab, click the New Item asterisk icon to add
an annotation, type in the information, click Ok.
Answer: A

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NO.6 What must you do when deploying HP BSM servers?
A. Use the Server and Database Configuration utility to establish connectivity between the server and the
databases.
B. Establish client-server communication between BSM servers.
C. Point the BSM data collector applications (BPM, SiteScope, etc.) to the event server.
D. Ensure that each server has a read access account to the database servers.
Answer: A

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NO.7 What is used to unify comparable events from different sources?
A. ETI
B. HI
C. CI Resolver hint
D. OM events
Answer: A

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NO.8 How does OMi determine which events to automatically forward to other connected servers?
A. It specifies a list of CIs. Any events that are related to a CI in the list are forwarded.
B. The administrator defines Event Fowarding Rules, which are defined with an event filter. Any events
that match the filter are forwarded.
C. OMi automatically forwards the Cause events that are correlated using TBEC rules.
D. It specifies a list of CI types. Any events that are related to a CI of a type that is in the list are forwarded.
Answer: B

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NO.9 HP BSM management servers can be installed on which operating systems? (Select two.)
A. HP-UX 11.11
B. HP-UX 11.23
C. Solaris 10
D. IBM AIX
E. Windows 2003 Server/Enterprise R2
F. Windows 2008 Server/Enterprise R2
Answer: E,F

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NO.10 What is the primary tool used to determine the scope, size, and recommended installation of a specified
HP BSM deployment?
A. Capacity Calculator
B. Deployment Configuration Calculator
C. Machine Requirements Calculator
D. OMi Installation Guide
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 000-006
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Tivoli Identity Manager V5.1 Implementation)

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NO.1 When can an IBM Tivoli Identity Manager (Tivoli Identity Manager) functional test case be executed
on a Tivoli Identity Manager adapter?
A. after performance tests on the adapter have been completed
B. after the adapter is installed and the corresponding service has been reconciled
C. when a remediation procedure exists as part of the risk assessment if the test case fails
D. after test cases on the Tivoli Identity Manager server configuration have been completed
Answer: D

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NO.2 The Business Continuity Review describes the system availability characteristics of the solution design.
In a typical high availability (HA) configuration, a load balancer is configured in front of several peer
masters for the directory server. Which statement is true regarding load balancing in an IBM Tivoli Identity
Manager (Tivoli Identity Manager) HA solution design?
A. If a primary master goes down, all traffic to that master is held until the master is available.
B. Load balancing of write traffic is unwise, because it leads to a possibility of an update conflict.
C. If the primary system goes down, the remaining systems do not need to be able to bear the work load.
D. The Tivoli Identity Manager dataservices component will assist the load balancer in the redirecting of
requests to one of the other replicated Tivoli Identity Manager servers.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which two options should be included in a custom adapter design document? (Choose two.)
A. supported platforms, Java version, log file locations
B. input requirements, installation instructions, prerequisites
C. process flow diagram, debugging information and log file information
D. prerequisites, supported platforms, process flow diagrams, source code
E. security certificate configuration, installation location, input requirements
Answer: BC

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NO.4 The account and password design document indicates that new accounts and passwords are initially
set up by a designated security officer Therefore, the notification is sent to the security officer and Is not
sent to each account owner. Which two options can be configured to meet this requirement? (Choose
two.)
A. Modify the existing e-mail notification templates to add the custom recipient.
B. Design a new e-mail notification template and add to the list of available workflow notification
templates.
C. Configure a mail node in the operation workflow where the participant is a person with an e-mail
account.
D. The IBM Tivoli Identity Manager administrator would disable the New Account Notification template
and the New Password template in Configuration > Properties > Notification Templates.
E. The IBM Tivoli Identity Manager administrator would disable the New Account Notification template
and the New Password template in Configure System > Workflow Notification Properties.
Answer: CE

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NO.5 In which formats can reports from the IBM Tivoli Identity Manager user interface be generated?
A. PDF, CSV
B. TXT, XML
C. PDF, TXT
D. HTML, PDF
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which information is stored in a certificate used to secure the connection between IBM Tivoli Identity
Manager Server and its adapters?
A. certificate expiration date
B. certificate encryption type
C. certificate requester's name
D. certificate encryption strength
Answer: A

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NO.7 When performing analysis for designing a global identity policy, which considerations are essential?
A. UID constraints of each managed service type, and the erglobalid of the person object
B. which managed service has the least restrictive UID constraints, and the erglobalid of the person
objects
C. UID constraints of each managed service type, and which attributes are available from the person
objects
D. which managed service has the least restrictive UID constraints, and which attributes are available
from the person object
Answer: C

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NO.8 In preparation for an initial identity or Identity feed to IBM Tivoli Identity Manager (Tivoli Identity
Manager) V5.1 which two person attributes are required as a minimum in the feed? (Choose two.)
A. Last Name (attribute sn)
B. Common Name (attribute cn)
C. Organizational Unit (attribute ou)
D. First Name (attribute givenname)
E. Employee Number (attribute employeeNumber)
Answer: AB

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NO.9 A simple IBM Tivoli Identity Manager (Tivoli Identity Manager) implementation running on a
Windows-based server includes a single AIX platform with two adapters (UNIX and DB2). What are two
necessary considerations when creating an upgrade planning document for this scenario?
A. middleware versions and domain trust relationships
B. secure FTP constraints and domain trust relationships
C. middleware versions and operating system release levels
D. secure FTP constraints and operating system release levels
Answer: C

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NO.10 A customer has chosen to separate the administration in IBM Tivoli Identity Manager (Tivoli Identity
Manager) of some target application services and provisioning parameters using Tivoli Identity Manager
groups. Which two options will be required, as a minimum, to implement security in this instance?
(Choose two.)
A. group-based ACIs
B. service-based ACIs for the application services
C. account-based ACIs for the application targets
D. provisioning policy ACIs for the provisioning policies
E. organizational unit ACIs with services and policies defined at that level
Answer: BD

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NO.11 Given the desired services list and organization structure design, which two options are essential to
create a service design? (Choose two.)
A. Define reporting data.
B. Validate human resource data.
C. Define organization requirements.
D. Gather platform business processes.
E. Gather IBM Tivoli Identity Manager access requirements
Answer: CD

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NO.12 Which sequence of actions best describes a secure practice for sensitive data in an IBM Tivoli Identity
Manager (Tivoli Identity Manager) database?
A. Schedule periodic database backups regularly in order to prevent losing sensitive data.
B. Enable security on the WebSphere Application Server and disallow running the WebSphere
Application Server using a non-root account.
C. Restrict network traffic to those ports or systems needed by the deployment only. If you write your own
application and use a Tivoli Identity Manager API to retrieve sensitive data, encrypt the data before
sending it over the network.
D. Restrict operating system access to database files. Limit the privileges of the operating system
accounts (administrative, root-privileged, or DBA) to the least privileges needed, change the default
passwords, and enforce periodic password changes.
Answer: D

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NO.13 In a CSV identity feed, what is the definition of the name attribute?
A. the attribute that uniquely identifies the person
B. the attribute that contains the full name of the person
C. the attribute that is used by IBM Tivoli Identity Manager to resolve account ownerships during
reconciliations
D. the attribute that contains the fully qualified DN of the person in the IBM Tivoli Identity Manager
ou=person container
Answer: A

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NO.14 Which option is relevant to gathering requirements and creating an IBM Tivoli Identity Manager (Tivoli
Identity Manager) system architecture document?
A. formulate list of questions, identify interviewees, identify timelines for project phases, and delegate
responsibility
B. formulate list of questions, identify interviewees, identify network topology, and ensure business
continuity planning
C. formulate list of questions, identify interviewees, discuss organization chart structure, and discuss
Tivoli Identity Manager ACI and group security model
D. discuss firewall rules, discuss certificate installations for HTTPS communication, and discuss Tivoli
Identity Manager Web application security and hijack-prevention features
Answer: B

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NO.15 Which two join directives can be used when multiple provisioning policies affect the same account?
(Choose two.)
A. Xor
B. Not
C. And
D. None
E. Union
Answer: CE

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NO.16 Which two options describe components of the Self-Service User Interface that can be included in the
customization design? (Choose two.)
A. changing the button text
B. changing the banner colors
C. creating a custom workflow approval process
D. changing the default lifecycle management flow
E. creating new views for IBM Tivoli Identity Manager groups
Answer: AB

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NO.17 What is the proper ordering of tasks during an IBM Tivoli Identity Manager V5.1 solution project?
A. solution design, installation, configuration, customization, testing, turn over
B. assessment, solution design, installation, customization, configuration, testing, turn over
C. assessment, solution design, installation, configuration, testing, customization, turn over
D. assessment, solution design, installation, configuration, customization, testing, turn over
Answer: D

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NO.18 Which steps are needed to create the password policy design?
A. define password policy scope, select password settings, document password policy design
B. define password policy requirements, analyze password settings, document password policy design
C. gather current password settings, analyze password policy, define password scope, document
password policy design
D. gather password policy requirements, define password policy scope, define password settings,
document password policy design
Answer: D

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NO.19 Click the Exhibit button.
Based on the organization chart and list of roles, which option is correct for this IBM Tivoli Identity
Manager V5.1 configuration?
A. A user in the On Demand Incorporated business unit can be granted the DESIGNER organizational
role.
B. Only users in the Engineering and any sub tree business units can be granted the DESIGNER
organizational role.
C. A provisioning policy with DESIGNER organizational role as membership can only be created in the
Engineering business unit.
D. Users in the On Demand Incorporated and sub tree business units will automatically be granted the
EMPLOYEE organizational role
Answer: A

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NO.20 Given the information in the sample Organization Chart, which three pairs of roles are valid in a rule of
a separation of duty policy? (Choose three.)
A. Operations and Web Page design
B. Development and Web page design
C. Operations and Production Web Team
D. Web page design and Production Web Team
E. Engineering and Web Infrastructure Engineering
F. Development and Web Infrastructure Engineering
Answer: ADF

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